Instrument Chapter 4 test 1

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1. Which of the following terms describes an airport?

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A. An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeof f of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any .

B. An area of land that is used for the takeof f and landing of aircraft, but does not include buildings since not all airports have buildings.

C. All runway , taxiway , and ramp areas created for use by aircraft.

2. Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of an airplane in IMC if you hold a private pilot certificate with ASEL, rotorcraft category , with helicopter class rating and instrument helicopter rating?

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A. Yes, if you comply with the recent IFR experience requirements for a helicopter .

B. No. You must hold either an unrestricted airline transport pilot-airplane certificate or an airplane instrument rating.

C. No. However , you may do so if you hold an airline transport pilot-airplane certificate limited to VFR.

3. What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?

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A. All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor , regardless of weather conditions.

B. All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions.

C. Only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments.

4. What are the requirements to log an ILS approach in VMC conditions for instrument currency?

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A. The flight must remain on an IFR flight plan throughout the approach and landing.

B. The ILS approach can be credited only if you use a view-limiting device and log the name of the safety pilot.

C. The ILS approach can be credited regardless of actual weather if you are issued an IFR clearance.

5. After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?

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A. 6 months.

B. 90 days.

C. 12 months.

6. A pilot may satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft by logging within the

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A. six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems.

B. six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or 6 hours in simulated IFR conditions; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved.

C. 6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions, including at least six instrument approaches. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft.

7. An instrument rated pilot who has not logged any instrument time in

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A. completes the required 6 hours and six approaches, followed by an instrument proficiency check given by an F AA-designated examiner .

B. passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved F AA examiner , instrument instructor , or FAA inspector .

C. passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, followed by 6 hours and six instrument approaches, 3 of those hours in the category of aircraft involved.

8. Which additional IFR experience is required for you to meet the recent flight experience requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR? Your present instrument experience within the preceding 6 calendar months is 1. three hours with holding, intercepting and tracking courses in an approved airplane flight simulator. 2.two instrument approaches in an airplane. *

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A. Three hours of simulated or actual instrument flight time in a helicopter and two instrument approaches in an airplane or helicopter .

B. Four instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved airplane flight simulator or training device.

C. Three instrument approaches in an airplane.

9. To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross-country flights of more than

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A. a Category II pilot authorization.

B. a First-Class Medical certificate.

C. a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

10. A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of

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A. a type rating.

B. a first-class medical certificate.

C. an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft.

11. The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated under

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A. IFR.

B. VFR.

C. DVFR.

12. What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?

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A. Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft.

B. Private pilot with instrument rating.

C. Private pilot with appropriate category , class, and instrument ratings.

13. During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should

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A. not hesitate to declare an emer gency and obtain an amended clearance.

B. wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.

C. contact ATC and advise that an ur gency condition exists and request priority consideration.

14. In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability , which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?

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A. DME and an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability .

B. Standby communications receiver , DME, and coded transponder .

C. An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability .

15. When is an IFR flight plan required?

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A. When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.

B. In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.

C. In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.

16. What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at

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A. 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below , and 2,000 feet horizontal.

B. 5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below , and 2,000 feet horizontal.

C. 3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below , and 2,000 feet horizontal.

17. What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than

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A. 3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontally 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

B. 1 mile; above clear of clouds; horizontally clear of clouds; below clear of clouds.

C. 1 mile; above 500 feet; horizontally 1,000 feet; below 500 feet.

18. What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at

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A. 1 mile; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

B. 3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

C. 5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.

19. During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3,000 ft. scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing, *

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A. and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

B. then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

C. then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

20. When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?

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A. 600-1 if the airport has an ILS.

B. Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; visibility 2 miles.

C. The landing minimums for the approach to be used.

21. For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight? *

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A. 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.

B. 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.

C. 800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.

22. What standard minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?

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A. Ceiling and visibility at ET A, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively .

B. Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ET A, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively .

C. Ceiling and visibility at ET A, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively .

23. What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using a VOT?

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A. Plus or minus 4°.

B. Plus or minus 6°.

C. Plus or minus 8°.

24. Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?

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A. VOR name or identification, date of check, amount of bearing error , and signature.

B. Place of operational check, amount of bearing error , date of check, and signature.

C. Date of check, VOR name or identification, place of operational check, and amount of bearing error .

25. To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to

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A. controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments.

B. entering weather conditions in any airspace.

C. entering controlled airspace.

26. No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he or she files a flight plan

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A. and receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeof

B. prior to takeof f and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway .

C. and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

27. What minimum navigation equipment is required for an IFR flight? *

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A. VOR/LOC receiver , transponder , and DME.

B. VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.

C. Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.

28. Where is DME required under IFR?

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A. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.

B. In positive control airspace.

C. Above 18,000 feet MSL.

Clear selection

29. What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?

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A. 12,500 feet.

B. 14,000 feet.

C. 15,000 feet.

30. In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above *

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A. 12,500 feet MSL.

B. 10,000 feet MSL.

C. Flight level (FL)

31. When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within Class B airspace? *

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A. A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.

B. The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules.

C. The proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).

32. An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished within

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A. 12 calendar months.

B. 18 calendar months.

C. 24 calendar months.

33. In order to qualify for BasicMed, you must have received a comprehensive examination from:

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A. An FAA-designated Aviation Medical Examiner within the previous 60 months.

B. A state-licensed physician within the previous 24 months.

C. A state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months.

Clear selection

34. A pilot plans an IFR flight on July 10 of this year. In order to meet IFR currency requirements, the pilot must have *

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A. performed his or her currency tasks between January 1 and July 10.

B. performed his or her currency tasks between January 10 and July 10 with none of it before January 10.

C. completed an IPC within the last year.

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