Network Support Position

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Network Support Position - Test

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1. Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three)

A. Session

B. transport

C. presentation

D. application

E. data-link

F. network

2. Which two types of information are held in the mac address table?

A. destination ip addresses

B. protocols

C. port numbers

D. mac address

E. source ip address

Clear selection

3. How does NAT overloading provide one-to-many address translation?

A. it uses a pool of addresses.

B. it converts IPv4 addresses to unused IPv6 addresses.

C. it assigns a unique TCP/UDP port to each session.

D. it uses virtual MAC address and virtual IP addresses.

Clear selection

4. Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?

A. Class C

B. Class B

C. Class D

D. Class A

Clear selection

5. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

A.10.1.1.1

B. 172.16.4.4

C. 224.6.6.6

D. 192.168.5.5

E. 172.32.5.2

F. 192.167.10.10

6. When is a routing table entry identified as directly connected?

A. when the local router is in use as the network default gateway

B. when the network resides on a remote router that is physically connected to the local router

C. when an interface on the route is configure with an ip address and enabled

D. when the route is statically assigned to reach a specific network

Clear selection

7. Which command displays the number of times that an individual router translated an inside address to an outside address?

A. show ip protocol

B. show ip nat translation

C. show counters

D. show iproute

E. show ip nat statistics

Clear selection

8. Refer to the exhibit, you determine that Computer A cannot ping Computer Which reason for the problem is most likely true?

A. The Subnet mask for Computer A is incorrect.

B. The default gateway address for Computer A is incorrect.

C. The subnet mask for computer B is incorrect.

D. The default gateway address for computer B is incorrect

Clear selection

9. Describe everything you know about straight through cable and UTP cables in general.

10. When troubleshooting ethernet connectivity issues how can you verify that an IP address is known to a router?

A. Check Whether the ip address is in the routing table

B. Check Whether an ACL is blocking the ip address

C. Check Whether the ip address is in the CAM Table

D. Check Whether the ip address is in the ARP Table

Clear selection

11. Which statement describes the effect of the copy run start command on a router in enable mode?

A. The running configuration of the router is savedto NVRAM and used during the boot process.

B. The router reboots and loads the last saved running configuration.

C. A copy of the running configuration of the router is sent by FTP to a designated server.

D. A new running configuration is loaded from flashmemory to the router.

Clear selection

12. Which network configuration can you use to segregate broadcast traffic for two different departments in your organization?

A. Configure two VTP domains and configure the switches in transparent mode.

B. Enable spanning-tree load balancing.

C. Implement switch port security on designated ports.

D. Configure a separate VLAN for each department.

Clear selection

13. Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network?(Choose three.)

A. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

B. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.

C. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.

D. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

E. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the

network media before transmitting.

14. The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?

A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.

B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.

C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.

D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160

Clear selection

15. Refer to the exhibit. If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in the output of a show cdp neighbors command issued from R2?

A. R1, S1, S2, R3 and S3

B. R2 and R3

C. R3 and S2

D. R1 and R3

E. R1, S1, S2, and R3

Clear selection

16. Which two statements about UDP are true? (Choose two)

A. It can transmit data at a rate higher than the path capacity

B. It uses a three-way handshake to ensure that traffic is transmated properly

C. It guarantees packet delivery

D. it includes protection against duplicate packets

E. it can be used for multicast and broadcast traffic

17. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

A. the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network

B. the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network

C. the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

D. the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network

18. Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts?

Option 1A. source

B. static

C. pool

D. overload

Clear selection

19. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

A. just the PC0 MAC address

B. PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses

C. just the PC2 MAC address

D. just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses

E. just the PC1 MAC address

Clear selection

20. Refer to the exhibit: After you apply the given configuration to R1, you determine that it is failing to advertise the172.16.10.32/27 network which action is most likely to correct the problem?

A. enable passive interface

B. enable manual summarization

C. enable auto summarization

D. enable RIPV2

Clear selection

21. What are two advantages of dynamic routing? (Choose two)

A. It produces minimal CPU load.

B. It can load-balance traffic over multiple link without manual intervention

C. It allows the network administrator to choose the best route.

D. it can be implemented easily even in large environments.

E. it can operate without a Layer 3 device

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server. Which reason is the most likely for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent?

A. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.

B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.

C. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped.

D. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address.

Clear selection

23. After you configure a default route to the Internet on a router, the route is missing from the routing table. Which option describes a possible reason for the problem?

OptionA. The next-hop address is unreachable.

B. The default route was configured on a passive interface.

C. Dynamic routing is disabled.

D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the interface used to reach the next hop.

Clear selection

24. On which OSI layer does a VLAN operate?

A. Layer 1

B. Layer 2

C. Layer 3

D. Layer 4

Clear selection

25. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

A. It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.

B. It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

C. It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.

D. It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.

Clear selection

26. After you configure a GRE tunnel between two networks, the tunnel comes up normally, but workstations on each side of the tunnel cannot communicate. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?

A. The tunnel source address is incorrect.

B. The tunnel destination address is incorrect.

C. The routebetween the networks is undefined.

D. The IP MTU is incorrect.

E. The distance configuration is missing

Clear selection

27. Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.

B. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.

C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.

D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.

E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.

F. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only

28. Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. Which option describes what the switch will do with the frame?

A. send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B

B. return the frame to Host B

C. drop the frame

D. send the frame out all ports except port 0/2

E. record the dest. MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C

F. send an ARP request for Host C

Clear selection

29. Which functionality does split horizon provide?

A. it Prevents routing loops in distance vector protocols

B. it Prevents switching loops in distance vector protocols

C. it Prevents switching loops in link-state protocols

D. it Prevents routing loops in link-state protocols

Clear selection

30. Which statement about upgrading a cisco ios device with TFTP is True?

A. The Cisco IOS device must be on the same lan as the TFTP server

B. The operation is performed in passive mode

C. The operation is performed in an unencrypted format

D. The operation is performed in active mode

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