2.
Explain the error made in the following proof by induction. Is base case, inductive step or, maybe, the proof itself.
(Second wrong reasoning)
Let us prove that any n numbers are equal P(n): if a_1, ..., a_n
arbitrary numbers, then 𝑎1 = 𝑎2 = . . . = 𝑎𝑛 .
With 𝑛 = 1, there is nothing to prove: there is only one number and it is equal to itself
yourself. Let us now prove that any n numbers are equal by assuming (as usual)
but is done by reasoning by induction), which for smaller n is already
known. Consider arbitrary numbers a_1, ....a_{n-1}, a_n. Excluding the last number, we get a set of n-1 numbers. By the induction hypothesis, they
are equal:
a_1 = a_2 = ...= a_{n-1}.
Now let's drop the first number. Again we get a set of n-1 numbers, and
the induction hypothesis gives
a_2 =a_3 = ...a_{n}.
Combining these two equalities, we get that
a_1 = a_2 = ... = a_n.
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