LLM 1st Mock

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LLM 1st Mock

LLM Entrance Exam Online Course
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16. Which of the following cases is about doctrine of indoor management?

1 point

a. Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Ca. Ltd v. Riche

(b) Rama Corpn. v. Proved tin and General Investment Co.

c) London Country Council v. Attorney-General

d) Lakshmana Swamy Mudaliar v. L.1.C.

Other:

Clear selection

17. Which of the following statement is correct. Answer using codes given below: a. Doctrine of indoor management apply In case of knowledge of irregularly company b. Doctrine of indoor management a not apply in case of suspicion irregularity. c. Doctrine of indoor management in case of forgery. d. Doctrine of indoor management not apply if the act of artificer company is one which would ordinarily be beyond the powers of such officer.

1 point

a) only A is correct

b) only B is correct

d. only D is correct

Other:

Clear selection

18. "Corporate personality is a mere procedural form which Is used to work out a convenient way for immediate purpose". It was stated by:

1 point

(a) Holland

b) Austin

d) Honfield

Other:

Clear selection

19. In which of the following the right of PD of property extends to the voluntary causing of death?

1 point

(a) Criminal trespass.

(b) Theft.

(d) All of these.

Other:

Clear selection

20. Point out incorrect response. The following are the ingredients of the defence of unsoundness of mind under section 84 I.P.C.:

1 point

(a) Act must be done by a person of unsound mind.

(b) Such person must be incapable of knowing : (i) the nature of the act, or (ii) that the act was contrary to law, or

(iii) that the act was wrong.

whether it is because of some disease of mind or otherwise at the time of commission of the crime.

(d) Incapacity must be by reason of unsoundness of mind of

the offender and incapacity must exist at the time of doing of the act constituting the offence.

Other:

Clear selection

21. A is at work with a hatchet: the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. What offence is committed by A in this situation?

1 point

(a) A has committed the offence of culpable homicide.

(b) A has committed the offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder.

(d) A has committed no offence as use of hatchet was a necessary of his livelihood.

Other:

Clear selection

22. X having sufficient food does not provide some food to a beggar who dies of hunger. X is guilty of:

1 point

(a) Attempt to assault

(b) Attempt to murder

(d) None of the above. Ans.(d)

Other:

Clear selection

23. Criminal force implies:

1 point

(a) Assault

(b) Battery

(d) None of the above

Other:

Clear selection

24. A with intention to kill her husband, purchased some poison-powder from a chemist who by mistake, dispensed plain sugar instead. She put the powder in a cup of tea and served it to her husband who drank it but did not die. Whichone of the following statements is correct so far as the charge to attempt a murder is concerned?

1 point

(a) She is liable because she had committed the penultimate act

(b) She is liable because her intention to kill her husband is clear from the totality of acts

(d) She is not liable because her husband did not die.

Other:

Clear selection

25. A intending to murder B by poison, purchases poison and mixes the same with a glass of water. He gives the glass to the bearer to serve B. the bearer while approaching B loses balance and the glass drops out of his plate. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?

1 point

(a) A has committed no offence

(b) A has committed the offence of attempt to commit culpable homicide.

(d) A has committed the offence of attempt to murder.

Other:

Clear selection

26. A struck B on the head a simple blow with a piece of firewood B fell down bleeding from nose and become senseless. A and his wife thought that B was dead hence they placed B on the wooden pyre and set fire to it which caused B’s death. A and his wife are guilty of

1 point

(a) Simple hurt.

(b) Murder.

(d) None of the above.

Other:

Clear selection

27. Culpable homicide is not murder if the accused is deprived of power of self control by

1 point

(a) Grave and sudden provocation by any one.

(b) Grave and sudden provocation by act god

(d) All of these.

Other:

Clear selection

28. Where a snake charmer to show his own skill placed a venomous snake on the head of a spectator with out the intention to cause harm. Spectator is trying to push of the snake was beaten and died, the snake charmer is guilty

1 point

(a) Under clause (1) of Sec. 300.

(b) Under clause (3) of Sec. 299

(d) Under clause (2) of Sec. 300

Other:

Clear selection

29. A’ person neglected to provide his child with proper sustenance although repeatedly warned by doctor of the consequence the child died. A is guilty of ---

1 point

(a) Murder.

(b) Culpable homicide

(d) No offence.

Other:

Clear selection

30. A, intending to cause theft instigates B, to take property belonging to Z out of Z’s possession. A induces B to believe that the property belongs to A. B takes the property out of Z’s possession in good faith, believing it to be A’s property. With reference to the above statementAssertion (A): A is guilty of abetment of theft even if B is innocent.Reason (R): Liability of abettor is not dependent on the liability of the principal accused.Directions:- the following item consist of two statements, one labeled as Assertion A and the other labeled as Reason R. Youare to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so,whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

1 point

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true

Other:

Clear selection

31. How many types of punishment have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code:

1 point

(a) Three

(b) Six

(d) Four

Other:

Clear selection

32. An Indian citizen commits any offence out of India, he:

1 point

(a) Cannot be prosecuted in India, as the act was not committed in India

(b) Can be prosecuted in the country where the offence was committed

(d) None of the above

Other:

Clear selection

33. Assertion (A): X and Y had independently entertained the idea to kill Z. Accordingly each of them separately inflicted wounds on Z, who dies in consequence. X and Y are liable for murder with the aid of Section 34 IPC.Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable as if the whole act is done by him alone.Of the above statements.

1 point

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT a correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

Other:

Clear selection

34. Section 34 of IPC:

1 point

(a) Creates a substantive offence

(b) Is a rule of evidence

(d) Neither (a) nor (b).

Other:

Clear selection

35. When a criminal act is done by several persons is furtherance of common intention of all:

1 point

(a) Each of such person is liable for that act

(b) Each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone

(d) None is incorrect

Option 5

Other:

Clear selection

36. X obtains property from Z by saying that your child in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless you send us ten lac rupees. X commits:

1 point

(a) Criminal breach of trust

(b) Robbery

(d) Theft.

Other:

Clear selection

37. Under the Indian Penal Code who among the following is liable for committing theft?

1 point

(a) Child below 7 years of age

(b) Child below 8 years of age

(d) Child between 7 and 12 years of age having maturity of understanding

Other:

Clear selection

38. X and Y were about to travel from Jammu Tawi to Delhi by the same train. Y had two tickets for Pathankot and X had a ticket for Delhi. X voluntarily banded over his ticket to Y in order to check that it was right one. Y under the pretense of returning X’s ticket substituted it by one of his own and kept X’s ticket. What offence did Y Commit?

1 point

(a) Theft

(b) Extortion

(d) Cheating

Other:

Clear selection

1. According to provisions of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 (IBC, 2016), who can initiate insolvency resolution process (IRP)? (a) Debtor (b) Creditor (c) creditor (d) reserve bank of India

1 point

A. Both a & b

B. Both B & C

C. Only A

D. All are Correct

Other:

Clear selection

2 Who will acts as adjudicating authority in case of insolvency resolution for individual or proprietor firms?

1 point

A. Commercial Court

B. DRT

C. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)

D. Civil Court

Other:

Clear selection

Under Muslim law, marriage with a woman, who has her husband alive and who has not been divorced by him is

1 point

valid

void

Invalid

irregular

Clear selection

3 The Act adds that the resolution under IBC 2016 process must be completed within. This includes time for any extension granted and the time taken in legal proceedings in relation to the process. What is ?

1 point

A. 180

B. 260

C. 300

D. 330

Other:

Clear selection

4. The Court assumed that the entity has the power to issue directions or orders to fill such a void until a suitable law on the subject is enacted. Which case is referred

1 point

A. ADR V. UOI

B. PUCL v. UOI

C. Both

D. NOTA

Other:

Clear selection

5 The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is established by every coastal country beyond the territorial waters or at the end of the area of territorial waters. What is the maximum extent of the EEZ from the shore?

1 point

a. 200 nautical miles

b. 100 nautical miles

c. 250 nautical miles

d. 300 nautical miles

Other:

Clear selection

6. Which of the following convention states that the launching state shall be completely held responsible and liable to pay compensation for damage caused by its outer space objects on the surface of the earth or to aircraft?

1 point

a. Liability Convention, 1972

b. Registration Convention

c. Geneva Convention

d. Paris Convention

Other:

Clear selection

7. Which case made it clear that through legislation or-judicial decisions an aircraft can hover over the private properties of others in normal flight in compliance with aeronautical regulation?

1 point

a. Clement Bayard v. Coquerel

b. Nicaragua v. United States

c. Nottebohm case

d. Bolevia v. Chile

Other:

Clear selection

8. A member of the ICJ is elected for the term of

1 point

a. 6 years

b. 7 years

c. 8 years

d. 9 years

Other:

Clear selection

9. The principle non-use of force is envisaged under

1 point

a. Art. 2(2) of the U.N. Charter

b. Art. 2(3) of the U.N. Charter

c. Art. 2(4) of the U.N. Charter

d. Art. 55 of the U.N. Charter

Other:

Clear selection

10.- GST was implemented in India from

1 point

a) 1st January 2017

b) 1st April 2017

c) 1st March 2017

d) 1st July 2017

Other:

Clear selection

11. The maximum rate for SGST/UTGST is

1 point

a) 14%

b) 20%

c) 28%

d) 30%

Other:

Clear selection

12. Noise pollution has been inserted Pollution in the Air(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act in the year:

1 point

(a) 1981

(b) 1982

(d) 2000

Other:

Clear selection

13. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

1 point

(a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006

(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999

(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Other:

Clear selection

14. In which of the following cases the Polluter pay principle was first time Involved by Supreme Court

1 point

(a) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

(b) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India

(d) Vellora Citizen's case.

Other:

Clear selection

15. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

1 point

(a) First World Climate Conference - 1979

(b) First Earth Summit - Agenda-21

(d) Carbon Trading – Montreal Protocol

Other:

Clear selection

39. Forgery is defined in:

1 point

A. Section 465

B. Section 463

C. Section 464

D. Section 467

Other:

Clear selection

40. Apportionment of benefit of obligation on severance is dealt with in the Transfer of Property Act 1882 under section:

1 point

a. 37

b. 38

c. 34

d. 36

Other:

Clear selection

41. A person is not put to his election, unless he has a proprietary interest in the property disposed off in derogation of his rights. This is the subject matter under provisions of:

1 point

(a) section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882

(b) section 35 of the Indian Registration Act, 1908

(d) General Clauses Act, 1897

Other:

Clear selection

42. The English rule against perplexities deals with:

1 point

A. Interests to arise in future

B. Interests in present

C. both A and B

D. both A and B

Other:

Clear selection

43. The Specific Relief Act 1963 deals with:

1 point

a. Compensatory remedies

b. Equitable remedies

c. both A and B are correct

d. none of the above

Other:

Clear selection

46. According to Section 2 of the Indian Contract, 1872, when one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtain the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a:

1 point

(a) Promise

(b) Consent

(d) Communication

Other:

Clear selection

47. 'C' let music hall to X for a series ‘of music concerts for certain days. The' hall was completely destroyed by fire before the schedule date of concerts. In this case:

1 point

(a) C cannot be discharged from performance of the contract

(b) The contract become voidable at the option of X

(d) The contract is void ab initio

Other:

Clear selection

48. A, B and C jointly promise to pay Rs. 30000 to X. In the absence of express agreement to the contrary, X can bring an action against

1 point

(a) All of them

(b) Only one of them

(d) Any one of them, jointly or severally

Other:

Clear selection

49. A and B, being traders, enter upon a contract. A has private information of a change in price which would affect B's willingness to proceed with the contract In this case:

1 point

(a) A is legally bound to inform B otherwise it would amount to fraud

(b) A is not bound to inform B

(d) A should inform B as a matter of sole business practice

Other:

Clear selection

50. A owes money B under a contract. It is agreed between A, B and C, that B shall thenceforth accept C as his debtor, instead of A, this agreement is called as:

1 point

Alteration

b) Extinction

(d) Novation

Other:

Clear selection

51. A municipality seeks funds from the general public for the construction of a town hall. X writes Rs. 30000/- In the subscription book and signs. The municipality, on the basis of subscription promised, engaged a contractor construct the Town Hall. X fails to pay Rs.30000. In this case

1 point

(a) X can deny liability on the ground there is no enforceable contract

(b) X can contend that a contract without consideration is legally unsustainable

liability on ground that it incurred liability on the fail of the promise made by X

(d) X can contend that, going by the municipality's past record,

he honestly believed that the municipality was not serious about constructing the town hall

Other:

Clear selection

52. Which of the following Is not provided in Section 4 of the Contract Act, 1872

1 point

(a) Communication of a proposal

(b) Communication of acceptance

(d) Revocation of proposals and acceptance

Other:

Clear selection

53. A promise to give money or money's worth upon the determination or ascertainment of an uncertain event is called a:

1 point

(a) Wager

(b) Lottery

(d) Contingent contract

Other:

Clear selection

54. A proposal when accepted –

1 point

(a) Becomes a promise

(b) Becomes an agreement

(d) Becomes a consideration

Other:

Clear selection

55. If a contract is caused by mistake as to a law not in force in India i.e. a foreign land such contract is:

1 point

(a) Valid and enforceable

(b) Voidable

(d) Valid but unenforceable

Other:

Clear selection

56. A agrees to serve B as B's housekeeper and also to live in adultery with him at a fixed salary of Rs. 500/- per month. In this situation:

1 point

(a) The whole agreement is unlawful and thus it is void

(b) The agreement is lawful and valid as adultery is not an offence in Indian Contract Act

(d) The agreement as a whole is void as the lawful portion is not severable from unlawful portion

Other:

Clear selection

57. Ramesh asks his servant to sell his cycle to him at a price less than the market's price. Such an agreement between Ramesh and his servant:

1 point

(a) Is a valid contract

(b) Is a contract void ab initio because of undue influence

(d) Is a contract void ab initio because of соcoercion

Option 5

Other:

Clear selection

58. 'A' promises to paint a picture for 'B'-

1 point

(a) 'A' may employ a competent person to perform the promise

(b) Representatives of 'A' may employ a competent person for the purpose

(d) 'A' must perform this promise personally

Other:

Clear selection

59. Who has said that "an offer need not be made to an ascertained person, but no contract can arise until it has been accepted by an ascertained person"

1 point

(a) Cheshire & Fifoot

(b) Anson

(d) Lord Stowell

Other:

Clear selection

61. A change of nature of obligation of a contract is known is known as:

1 point

a. Novation

b. Rescission

c. Alteration

d. Repudiation

Other:

Clear selection

62. A contract implied by law is known as:

1 point

a. Contingent Contract

b. Quasi Contract

c. Expressed Contract

d. Implied Contract

Other:

Clear selection

63. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 contains certain provisions relating to offences against women as recommended by:

1 point

a. Srikrishna Committee

b. Verma Committee

c. Sarkaria Commission

d. Malimath Committee

Other:

Clear selection

64. When the property seized by a police officer is not produced before the Court during the inquiry or trial, the property for disposal shall be governed by which one of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

1 point

a. Section 454

b. Section 455

c. Section 457

d. Section 458

Other:

Clear selection

65. Which one of the following offences is cognizable and non- bailable under the IPC/CrPC?

1 point

a. Violation of condition of remission of punishment

b. Printing of a proceeding without prior permission of Court

c. Personation of a juror or assessor

d. Disclosure of identity of a victim of rape

Other:

Clear selection

66. A report made by a police officer in a case which discloses, after investigation, the commission of a non-cognizable offence, shall be deemed to be a:

1 point

a. police report

b. final report

c. complaint

d. charge sheet

Other:

Clear selection

67. Warrant-case does NOT mean a case relating to an offence punishable with:

1 point

a. imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years.

b. imprisonment for life

c. death

d. imprisonment for two years

Other:

Clear selection

68. Which one of the following chapters of the CrPC does NOT apply to the socio-economic offences or offences committed against a women or a child below the age of 14 years?

1 point

a. Chapter XXI-A

b. Chapter XXXI-A

c. Chapter XIX-A

d. Chapter XXIX-A

Other:

Clear selection

69. Which one of the following Sections of the CrPC is analogous to the Writ of Habeas Corpus?

1 point

a. Section 96

b. Section 97

c. Section 100

d. Section 101

Other:

Clear selection

70. Where two Courts, subordinate to two different High Courts, have taken the cognizance of the same offence, a question related to which of the subordinate Court can inquire or try into offence shall be directed by:

1 point

a. parties concerned

b. Sessions Court of the two Subordinate Courts

c. the High Court, within whose appellate jurisdiction the proceeding were first commenced

d. the Supreme Court

Other:

Clear selection

71. Which of the following does not find mention in the Constitution of India?

1 point

a. Attorney General of India

b. Advocate General

c. Solicitor General of India

d. State Election Commissioner

Other:

Clear selection

72. The authority to specify as to which castes shall be deemed to be scheduled castes rests with the

1 point

a. President

b. Government

c. Prime Minister

d. NCSC

Other:

Clear selection

73. The doctrine of ‘basis structure of the constitution’ as a principle of judicial review

1 point

a. Is strictly in accord with the principles of procedure established by law

b. Is inconsistent with the principle of the due process of law

c. Accepts the theory that the legislature is the supreme law making body

d. Assumes the power of judging the wisdom of the sovereign legislature

Other:

Clear selection

74. The phrase ‘procedure established by law’ is borrowed from the constitution of

1 point

a. South Africa

b. Japan

c. Ireland

d. United States

Other:

Clear selection

75. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in

1 point

a. Either house of parliament

b. In a joint sitting of both houses of parliament

c. The lok sabha alone

d. The rajya sabha alone

Other:

Clear selection

76. Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala case is related to;

1 point

a. Protection of religious belief

b. Fundamental Duties under Article 51(e)

c. Performing Tandava dance

d. Observing religious practice at any location

NOTA

Other:

Clear selection

77. The Constitution of India in Part XXI does not contain special provisions with regard to which one of the following States?

1 point

a. Maharashtra

b. Andhra Pradesh

c. Assam

d. Himachal Pradesh

Option 5

Other:

Clear selection

78. Legal Provisions of the Indian Constitution relating to the formation of new states can be enacted by

1 point

a. Two-third of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament

b. A parliamentary resolution which should be ratified by majority of state legislatures

c. A simple majority in each house of Parliament

d. A three-fourth majority in each house of Parliament

Other:

Clear selection

79. Who defined legal right as a power over an object which by means of this right be subjected to will of the person enjoyed the right.

1 point

a. Salmond

b. Puchta

c. Austin

d. Dicey

Other:

Clear selection

80. Who said that “Justice is constant and perpetual will to render to everyone that to which he is entitled”?

1 point

a. Ulpian

b. Salmond

c. Cicero

d. Hart

Other:

Clear selection

81. Who is the spiritual father of Realist School?

1 point

a. Gray

b. Homes

c. Ehrlich

d. Kohler

Other:

Clear selection

83. Who said that negligence is the contrary of diligence and no one describe as a state of mind?

1 point

a. Austin

b. Pollock

c. Salmond

d. Hart

Other:

Clear selection

84. Who has authored “Early History of Institutions”?

1 point

a. Hegel

b. Maine

c. Savigny

d. Puchta

Other:

Clear selection

85. Improving the Savigny’s theory who said that general will of the people flows from the organic system?

1 point

a. Maine

b. Puchta

c. Hegel

d. Pollock

Other:

Clear selection

86. Who is not competent to order security for keeping peace on conviction under section 106 of CrPC

1 point

a. Sessions court

b. Court of magistrate of first class

c. Executive magistrate

d. all are competent

Other:

Clear selection

86. Who is not competent to order security for keeping peace on conviction under section 106 of CrPC

1 point

a. Sessions court

b. Court of magistrate of first class

c. Executive magistrate

d. all are competent

Other:

Clear selection

87. Which section ensures that the statements made to the police during investigation are not affected by fear or favour:

1 point

a. Section 163

b. Section 164

c. Section 165

d. Section 166

Other:

Clear selection

88. Which sections of the code provide for the preventive action of the police

1 point

a. Section 149 to 151

b. Section 148 to 153

c. Section 149 to 153

d. Section 152 to 155

Other:

Clear selection

89. The rules as to compensation payable in case of dishonor of a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque is mentioned is section

1 point

116

117

119

120

Other:

Clear selection

90. Parkinson’s disease related to-

1 point

a. Nervous System

b. Bones

c. Eves

d. Chest

Other:

Clear selection

91. When Criminal Procedure Code 1973 came into force?

1 point

a. On April 1, 1973

b. On April 1, 1974

c. On January 1, 1974

d. On March 1, 1974

Other:

Clear selection

92. Point out the incorrect statement-

1 point

a. In a cognizable offence any police may without any order from a Magistrate and without a warrant arrest any person

b. A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person committing a cognizable offence

c. An executive Magistrate may arrest offender when any offence and within his jurisdiction

d. NOTA

Other:

Clear selection

93. According to which section a person can arrest on refusal to give name and evidence?

1 point

a. Section 39

b. Section 40

c. Section 41

d. Section 42

Other:

Clear selection

94. Which of the following Magistrates can order habitual offenders of robbery or house breaking to execute a bound with without sureties?

1 point

a. Judicial Magistrate 2nd Class

b. Judicial Magistrate 1st class

c. Executive Magistrate

d. Any of these

Other:

Clear selection

95. Cases institute otherwise than on police report is under section-

1 point

244 to 247

247 to 252

255 to 260

261 to 266

Other:

Clear selection

97. Any property by a female Hindu whether acquired before or after the commencement of the Hindu Succession Act shall be held by her

1 point

a. As a limited owner

b. As life estate

c. As a full owner

d. As a co owner

Other:

Clear selection

98. A Hindu female propositus dies leaving behind a sister, two sons, one daughter, mother and father. Find the share of the daughter.

1 point

1/2

1/3

1/4

1/6

Other:

Clear selection

99. What is the appellate authority for the order against National Company Law Appellate Tribunal?

1 point

a. District

b. High Court

c. Supreme Court

d. DRT

Other:

Clear selection

100. In which of the following cases, the doctrine of Indoor Management was laid down?

1 point

a. Salomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd

b. Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co. Ltd v. Riche

c. Foss v. Harbottle

d. Royal British Bank v. Turquand

Other:

Clear selection

Who is called as "Darwinian before Darwin and Sociologist before sociologists":

1 point

Savigny

Darwin

Montesquieu

Maine

Clear selection

The fair and ....distribution of rights and obligations, is known as

1 point

equal

equitable

natural

political

Clear selection

Who said that" law is not to be deduced from the rules but the rule from the law?

1 point

Paulus

Duguit

Holland

Hart

Clear selection

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