02/03/24 – CIN - Take test (14)
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1) A 35-year-old female, P3L3, has CIN III on colposcopic biopsy. What would you do?
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2) A 35-year-old woman presents for her routine Pap smear. Results reveal CIN I (mild dysplasia). She has no history of abnormal Pap smears in the past. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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3) A 28-year-old woman presents with persistent abnormal bleeding between menstrual cycles. She has a history of CIN II (moderate dysplasia) diagnosed 2 years ago, for which she underwent a loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP). The current Pap smear shows atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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4) A 45-year-old woman presents with postcoital bleeding, and a history of untreated CIN III (severe dysplasia) diagnosed 3 years ago. She has not followed up with recommended surveillance. Physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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5)  A 50-year-old woman presents for her routine gynecologic examination. She has a history of treated CIN I (mild dysplasia) diagnosed 10 years ago, for which she underwent cryotherapy. Her current Pap smear is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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6) A 30-year-old woman presents with persistent HPV infection and CIN II (moderate dysplasia) on colposcopy-directed biopsy. She desires future fertility. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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7)  A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of untreated CIN III (severe dysplasia) diagnosed 5 years ago. She has been lost to follow-up. She now complains of postmenopausal bleeding. Physical examination reveals an exophytic cervical lesion. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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8)  A 32-year-old woman presents with persistent abnormal bleeding and a history of CIN I (mild dysplasia) diagnosed 4 years ago. She has not followed up with recommended surveillance. Physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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9) A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with a history of CIN II (moderate dysplasia) diagnosed 1 year ago. She is currently in her second trimester of pregnancy. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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10) A 21-year-old female with no medical history who smokes a pack of cigarettes per day has a pap smear that shows HGSIL (high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia). What is the best next step for this patient?
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11) A 28-year-old woman, G2P1 at 28 weeks gestation, presents for routine care. She had a Pap test on her last visit, which showed a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. The patient's current pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far. The woman can feel fetal movement and is not having vaginal bleeding or contractions. Physical examination shows a gravid uterus. The cervix is long, closed, and posterior. What is the best next step in the management of this patient? 
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12)  A 35-year-old lady has postcoital bleeding. What is the management?
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13)  A 45-year-old lady complains of contact bleeding.  She has a positive Pap smear. What is the management?
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14) A young lady has mild erosion of cervix, and the Pap smear shows dysplasia. What is the next step?
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