11) A 28-year-old woman, G2P1 at 28
weeks gestation, presents for routine care. She had a Pap test on her last
visit, which showed a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. The patient's
current pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far. The woman can feel fetal
movement and is not having vaginal bleeding or contractions. Physical
examination shows a gravid uterus. The cervix is long, closed, and posterior.
What is the best next step in the management of this patient?