PRE-ECLAMPSIA (5 of 12) 28/03/24
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4) A pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation presents with new-onset hypertension (blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hours apart) without proteinuria. Which of the following conditions is she most at risk for developing? *
1 point
5) Which of the following laboratory findings is consistent with severe preeclampsia?
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1 point
6)  A 28-year-old G1P0 at 35 weeks of gestation presents with a severe headache, generalized malaise, and scotoma. Her history is significant for gestational hypertension, diagnosed at 24 weeks, for which she takes labetalol 200 mg twice daily. Today's urine dipstick shows 3+ protein and no leukocytes or nitrites. An ultrasound shows vertex presentation. A diagnosis of preeclampsia with severe features is made, and she is started on a loading dose of magnesium sulfate. What is the best next step? *
1 point
7)  A 29-year-old woman presents for a routine antenatal visit. The patient has no complaints except for occasional headaches that usually resolve on their own. She is G1P0 at 25/0 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg. Her blood pressure readings on previous visits were normal. What is the most appropriate next step in evaluation? *
1 point
8)  A 30-year-old pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation presents with mild hypertension (140/90 mmHg) and trace proteinuria on urinalysis. She denies any symptoms. Fetal ultrasound shows appropriate growth for gestational age with normal Doppler studies. What is the most appropriate management for this patient? *
1 point
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