PRE-ECLAMPSIA (4 of 12) 29/03/24
Sign in to Google to save your progress. Learn more
9) A 28-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2 para 1, presents to the obstetrics clinic at 32 weeks gestation for a routine prenatal visit. She complains of new-onset headaches and blurry vision over the past week. She has a history of chronic hypertension controlled with labetalol and one prior preterm birth due to preeclampsia. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg, and proteinuria is noted on urinalysis. Fetal ultrasound shows appropriate growth for gestational age, with a normal amniotic fluid index and Doppler studies indicating normal umbilical artery flow. What is the most appropriate management for this patient? *
1 point
10)  A 26-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks gestation presents with elevated blood pressure (160/100 mmHg) and 3+ proteinuria on urinalysis. She denies any symptoms. Fetal ultrasound shows appropriate growth for gestational age with normal Doppler studies. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient? *
1 point
11)  A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with severe headaches, epigastric pain, and visual disturbances. On examination, her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg, and proteinuria is 4+. Fetal ultrasound shows appropriate growth for gestational age with abnormal Doppler studies indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. What is the most appropriate next step in management? *
1 point
12)  A 34-year-old pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation presents with elevated blood pressure (150/100 mmHg) and 2+ proteinuria on urinalysis. She complains of persistent right upper quadrant pain and nausea. Fetal ultrasound shows appropriate growth for gestational age with abnormal Doppler studies indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. What is the most appropriate next step in management? *
1 point
Submit
Clear form
This content is neither created nor endorsed by Google. Report Abuse - Terms of Service - Privacy Policy
Google Forms