UG-CLAT MODEL TEST
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ENGLISH
The sun rises and sets and the moon changes; but people have no idea why, or what are the relations of the heavenly bodies to the earth. No one knows anything about the natural causes of rain or drought, storms or earthquakes, famine or disease. Thus, everything is put down to mysterious influences by magic or by god and bad spirits. Such ideas cannot very well be called superstitious so long as no better explanation is available. But reason may show that they are false; and finally, when scientific knowledge demonstrates the way things really work, the ideas of magic or spirit–influence can be seen to be mere superstitions. So, as science progresses, superstition ought to grow less. On the whole, that is true. But it is surprising how superstitions linger on. If we are tempted to look down on savage tribes and other nations for holding such ideas, we should remember that even today; among the most civilized nations, a great many equally stupid superstitions exist and are believed in by a great many people. It is worth making a list of the superstitions which you know about. Some people will not sit down thirteen at table; others will not light three cigarettes from one match, or do not like to start anything important on a Friday, or refuse to walk under a ladder. Many people buy charms and talismans because they think they will bring them luck. Perhaps you yourself are inclined to believe in some of these ideas! Try to find out if there is really anything in any of them, and what reasons there may be for people believing in them. Probably the most terrible example of superstitions is the belief in witchcraft. In Western Europe, during the 16th and 17th centuries, over three–quarters of a million people were killed, after being tortured, because they were found guilty of witchcraft–something for which today we can find no scientific evidence. When people give reasons are not merely superstitions, or based on false principles.
In addition, even in civilized nations today, many actions take place and laws are made on the basis of principles which are just as much unproved assumptions as were many of the philosophies of the Middle Ages. For instance, it is often held as a principle that white people are by nature superior to people of other colors. In the same sort of way the ancient Greeks believed themselves by nature superior to the barbarians of Northern and Western Europe. The only way to see if there is anything in such a principle is to make scientific studies on numbers of white and black and brown people under different conditions of life and education and find out just what they can and cannot achieve. It is however, true that the increase of scientific knowledge does reduce superstition and also baseless guessing and useless argument and practices. Civilized people do not argue and get angry about what water is composed of: the composition of water is known, and there is no argument about it. They may be frightened at a volcanic eruption or an outbreak of plague; but they do not try to calm the anger of mysterious powers to stop the eruption, or blame the plague on the sins of their enemies or on the plotting of witchcraft.

Q.1) Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? 1. Ignorance makes people rely on magic or spirit–influence 2. Illiteracy in India is the major cause for not knowing relations of heavenly bodies to earth 3. For which there is no scientific justification it is superstition 4. Superstitions explain the relations of heavenly bodies to earth
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Q2.) Which of the following statements is not made by the author in the passage?
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Q.3) What does ‘witchcraft’ mean in the passage?
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Q.4) In the last lines of passage “they may be frightened at a volcanic eruption….plotting of witchcraft”. Who is the author referring to as “they” in the passage?
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Q.5) Which of the following best explains the passage?
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According to the Hindu tradition the name of the dance form was derived by joining two words, ‘Bharata’ and Natyam’ where ‘Natyam in Sanskrit means dance and ‘Bharata’ is a mnemonic comprising ‘bha’, ‘ra’ and ‘ta’ which respectively means ‘bhava’ that is emotion and feelings; ‘raga’ that is melody; and ‘tala’ that is rhythm. Thus, traditionally the word refers to a dance form where bhava, raga and tala are expressed) The theoretical base of this dance form, which is also referred as Sadir, trace back to ancient Indian theatrologist and musicologist, Bharata Muni’s Sanskrit Hindu text on the performing arts called ‘Natya Shastra’. Bharata Natyam is one of the oldest dance forms of India) It traces its origins back to the Natyashastra, an ancient treatise on theatre written by mythic priest Bharata) Bharata Natyam often is used to express Hindu religious stories and devotions. It was not commonly seen on the public stage until the 20th century. The dance movements are characterized by bent legs, while feet keep rhythm. Hands may be used in a series of mudras, or symbolic hand gestures to tell a story. It was nurtured in the temples and courts of Southern India since ancient times. Later it was codified and documented as a performing art in the 19th century by four brothers known as Tanjore Quartet whose musical compositions for dance form the bulk of the Bharata Natyam repertoire even today. The art was handed down as a living traditions from generation to generation under the Devadasi system under which women were dedicated to temples to serve the deity as dancers and musicians, forming part of the elaborate rituals. These highly talented artists and the male gurus (nattuvanars) were the sole repository of the art until the early 20th century when a renewal of interest in India’s cultural heritage prompted the educated elite to discover its beauty. By this time the Devadasis had fallen upon evil days due to lack of state patronage and changed social mores. The revival of Bharata Natyam by pioneers such as E. Krishna Iyer and Rukmini Devi Arundale brought the dance out of the temple precincts and onto the proscenium stage though it retained its essentially devotional character.
Today, Bharata Natyam is one of the most popular and widely performed dance styles and is practiced by male and female dances all over India) Due to its wide range of movements and postures and the balanced mélange of the rhythmic and mimetic aspects lends itself well to experimental and fusion choreography. Degree and Post Graduate courses covering the practice and theory of Bharata Natyam as well as the languages associated with its development are available at major Universities of India)  [Extracted from websource: https://www.culturalindia)net/indiandance/classical/bharatnatyam.html]

Q.6) This passage can be best described as:
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Q.7) The Devadasis were:
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Q.8) Which of the following is true about Bharat Natyam?
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Q.9) Which is the status of Bharata Natyam today?
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Q.10) How many dance forms of the classical dances are recognized in India by Sangeeth Natak Akademi?
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Q.11) Humor is both a form of entertainment and a means of coping with difficult or awkward situations and stressful events. Although it provokes laughter, humor can be serious business. From the witty to the absurd, humor can help with bonding, releasing tension, attracting a mate, putting rivals in their place, and keeping a child amused) A good sense of humor can even protect your heart health and give your immune system a boost. But there is also a dark side to humor when it is hostile, antagonistic, degrading, or aggressive, or when it displays a sense of superiority. This is often the case with ethnic or racist jokes and sexual humor that is sometimes referred to as “locker room talk.” While it may be good to laugh at oneself from time to time, the hardships, shortcomings and imperfections of others have long been fodder for amateur and professional comedians alike.
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Q.12) Common sense and research had shown that people who did best in life felt good about themselves, and it seemed a short leap to conclude that the reverse must also be true: If successful people enjoyed high self–esteem, then high self–esteem would foster success. Students would do better if they had more self–esteem. Employees would work harder. Girls who felt inferior because of poor body image or math phobia would gain from self–esteem training. By 1986, when California created a commission to bolster self–image as a statewide goal, the concept had become a pop–culture phenomenon. Celebrated in the media, in politics and in schools, self– esteem had become an end in itself –– a commodity, like expanded memory for a personal computer, that could be installed in a do–it–yourself upgrade. But now self– esteem is having image problems of its own. Research is indicating that self– esteem is not in and of itself a strong predictor of success. Criminals and juvenile delinquents, it turns out, often have high self–esteem, using the traditional measurements. New political movements in education have turned on self–esteem and blamed it for students' failures in learning.
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Q.13) For each of the past three years, temperatures have hit peaks not seen since the birth of meteorology, and probably not for more than 110,000 years. The amount of carbon dioxide in the air is at its highest level in 4 million years. This does not cause storms like Harvey — there have always been storms and hurricanes along the Gulf of Mexico — but it makes them wetter and more powerful. As the seas warm, they evaporate more easily and provide energy to storm fronts. As the air above them warms, it holds more water vapor. For every half a degree Celsius in warming, there is about a 3% increase in atmospheric moisture content. Scientists call this the Clausius–Clapeyron equation. This means the skies fill more quickly and have more to dump. The storm surge was greater because sea levels have risen 20 cm as a result of more than 100 years of human– related global warming which has melted glaciers and thermally expanded the volume of seawater.
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Q.14) Marriage is viewed as a sacrament in Hinduism with the wife being viewed as under the possession of the husband. This has been used as a defense by the legislature against the criminalization of marital rape. When the matter is further analyzed, it can be concluded that the issue goes much deeper. Due to the archaic rule that marital rape is not easily recognized as an offence, it is assumed by the law that, marriage refers to the wife giving consent to all the “matrimonial obligations” including sexual intercourse. Even though India as a nation is based on the theory of equity, it still has not recognized the right a woman has in controlling marital intercourse as a component of equality. As the nation lacks any sort of legal provisions regarding marital rape, the victims’ only resort is to go to court. Courts have various methods to identify marital rape and have given strict punishments but due to the lack of legal provisions, they are bound and hence cannot describe “forceful intercourse by a man upon his wife” as marital rape. Hence, the Judiciary is not enough and it requires the help of the legislature. The laws have to adapt to the changing reality of society.
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The World Wide Web, a network of electronically produced and interconnected (or “linked”) sites, called pages, that are accessible via personal computer, raises legal issues about the rights of owners of intellectual property, notably those who create documents for inclusion on Web pages. Some of these owners of intellectual property claim that unless copyright law is strengthened, intellectual property on the Web will not be protected from copyright infringement. Web users, however, claim that if their ability to access information on Web pages is reduced, the Web cannot live up to its potential as an open, interactive medium of communication. The debate arises from the Web’s ability to link one document to another. Links between sites are analogous to the inclusion in a printed text of references to other works, but with one difference: the cited document is instantly retrievable by a user who activates the link. This immediate accessibility creates a problem, since current copyright laws give owners of intellectual property the right to sue a distributor of unauthorized copies of their material even if that distributor did not personally make the copies. If person A, the author of a document, puts the document on a Web page, and person B, the creator of another Web page, creates a link to A’s document, is B committing copyright infringement? To answer this question, it must first be determined who controls distribution of a document on the Web. When A places a document on a Web page, this is comparable to recording an outgoing message on one’s telephone answering machine for others to hear. When B creates a link to A’s document, this is akin to B’s giving out A’s telephone number, thereby allowing third parties to hear the outgoing message for themselves. Anyone who calls can listen to the message; that is its purpose. While B’s link may indeed facilitate access to A’s document, the crucial point is that A, simply by placing that document on the Web, is thereby offering it for distribution. Therefore, even if B leads others to the document, it is A, who actually controls access to it. Hence creating a link to a document is not the same as making or distributing a copy of that document. Moreover, techniques are already available by which A can restrict access to a document. For example, A may require a password to gain entry to A’s Web page, just as a telephone owner can request an unlisted number and disclose it only to selected parties. Such a solution would compromise the openness of the Web somewhat, but not as much as the threat of copyright infringement litigation. Changing copyright law to benefit owners of intellectual property is thus ill-advised because it would impede the development of the Web as a public forum dedicated to the free exchange of ideas.
Q.15) Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?
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Q.16) Which one of the following is closest in meaning to the term “strengthened” as that term is used in line 8 of the passage?
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Q.17) With which one of the following claims about documents placed on Web pages would the author be most likely to agree?
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Q.18) Based on the passage, the relationship between strengthening current copyright laws and relying on passwords to restrict access to a Web document is most analogous to the relationship between
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Q.19) The passage most strongly implies which one of the following?
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Q.20) According to the passage, which one of the following features of outgoing messages left on telephone answering machines is most relevant to the debate concerning copyright infringement?
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Q.21) The author’s discussion of telephone answering machines serves primarily to
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Q.22) According to the passage, present copyright laws
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Q.23) The sense of smell is of the highest importance to the greater number of mammals. But the sense of smell is of extremely slight service, if any, even to the dark coloured race of men, in whom it is much more highly developed than in the while and civilised races. M.Houzeau asserts that he repeatedly made experiments, and proved that Negroes and Indians could recognise persons in the dark by their odour.
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OXFORD, England — Twitter has been taunting us: When he was in quarantine from the plague, William Shakespeare wrote “King Lear.” He had an advantage, of sorts: Shakespeare’s life was marked by plague. Just weeks after his baptism at Holy Trinity Church in Stratford–upon–Avon in 1564, the register read, “Hic incepit pestis” (Here begins the plague). Mortality rates in the town were four times that of the previous, plague–free year. Shakespeare, the son of the town’s glover, survived it and many further outbreaks. Much of his work was composed, if not in lockdown, then in the shadow of a highly infectious disease without a known cure. While the theatres were closed for an epidemic in 1592–3, the fledgling playwright produced his hugely successful narrative poems “Venus and Adonis” (a piece of beautiful erotica in which the goddess Venus throws herself at the unwilling Adonis) and “The Rape of Lucrece” (a queasily voyeuristic poem about sexual assault). Again in 1603–4, when plague prevented the coronation celebrations for the new king, James I, and one in five Londoners succumbed to the disease, Shakespeare was probably writing his study of civic corruption, “Measure for Measure.” In the plague outbreak of the summer of 1606, Shakespeare may well have been working on “King Lear," given that the tragedy’s first performance was at the Palace of Whitehall, the main London residence of Tudor and Stuart English monarchs, “on St Stephen’s night in Christmas holidays” the same year. The impact of the disease on the play, though, is oblique. There are references to plague which have lost their specificity over time, but which must then have caused a shiver. Lear curses his daughter Regan and her husband Cornwall with “Vengeance, plague, death, confusion,” and berates her as “a plague–sore or embossed carbuncle / In my corrupted blood)” “Plague–sore” refers to the inflamed lymph glands that were such a feared symptom of the disease — it’s not something any parent should wish on their child) Perhaps the play’s particular violence on the younger generation allegorizes that of the plague itself: The disease was most rampant among those in their 20s and 30sShakespeare seems to have been able largely to shut out his immediate context. The plague is everywhere and nowhere in his work. In the language of “King Lear” and other plays it is ubiquitous — but otherwise it’s almost entirely absent. Men and women, to be sure, die in any number of inventive ways. In “Othello,” Desdemona is smothered in her bed) In “Titus Andronicus,” the rapists Chiron and Demetrius have their throats cut and are baked in pastry. John of Gaunt dies of old age exacerbated by the absence of his exiled son in “Richard II.” In “Hamlet,” Ophelia drowns. But no one in Shakespeare’s plays dies of the plague. Romeo and Juliet, who die because the friar’s letter is held up by quarantine measures in northern Italy, are the nearest his work comes to plague fatalities. Just as Shakespeare never set a play in contemporary London, neither did he address directly the most prominent cause of sudden death in his society. Documentary realism was not Shakespeare’s style.
Q. 24) What is the figure of speech in the line, When he was in quarantine from the plague, William Shakespeare wrote “King Lear.”?
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Q.25) Why does the author say that Shakespeare had an advantage of sorts?
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Q.26) What best evidence does the author give to say that in the plague outbreak on 1606 Shakespeare was probably working on King Lear?
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Q.27) What does the author mean when she says that, “The plague is everywhere and nowhere in his work?”
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Q.28)  What is the significance of killing characters in the most innovative ways and not of the plague?
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Q.29)  What is NOT the meaning of ‘contemporary’ as used in the last paragraph in the passage?
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Q.30) What is the meaning of allegorizes as used in the seventh paragraph in the passage?
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CURRENT AFFAIRS AND GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday said major global firms are looking at India as a major investment destination, which is reflected by a robust inflow of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) last financial year, and through Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan‘ (SelfReliant India initiative) the country is shifting its focus from Make in India‘ to Make for world‘. He said Independent India should be ―vocal for local‖ and asked citizens to glorify Indian products to promote AtmanirbharBharat‘. Unveiling his vision of a Self-Reliant India, the Prime Minister said that the government has unveiled over Rs 110 lakh crore National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) to boost the economy and create jobs. ―In order to rapidly modernise India, there is a need to give a new direction to overall infrastructure development, he said, adding that over 7,000 projects under NIP have been already identified) ―This will be, in a way, a new revolution in the field of infrastructure. This is the time to end silos in infrastructure. There is a plan to connect the entire country with multimodel connectivity infrastructure,he said) NIP will play a crucial role in overcoming the adverse impact of Covid-19 on the economy and catapult the economy in a higher growth trajectory, he said) The government on December 31 last year unveiled the NIP with an aim to make India a $5 trillion economy by 2024-25. The focus of the infrastructure pipeline is to accelerate growth and create employment in both urban and rural areas. Source: Excerpt from Hindustan Times, written by Rajeev Jayaswal. (Dated 15th August, 2020)
Q.31) The Government announced a stimulus package under the Self Reliant India Scheme for the amount of _____________.
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Q.32)  Which of the following is not a goal of the stimulus package announced under the ―Atma nirbhar India?
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Q.33) Which of the following events can be seen as the stepping stone for the growth of the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India?
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Q.34)  Which of the following is not related to the ―Vocal for Local initiative of the Indian Government?
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Q.35) Under the National Infrastructure Pipeline, the Government plans to invest more than Rs. 102 lakh crore on infrastructure projects by 2024-25, with the Centre, States and the private sector to share the capital expenditure. What is the ratio of such expenditure by each of the stake holders?
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One thing struck us as a major difference between the new National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and its predecessor. The earlier national policies on education (NPE) from 1986 and 1992 presented themselves as attempts to consolidate and build on earlier efforts, particularly the NPE, 1968. The new NEP 2020 policy, on the other hand, is very keen to establish that it is different from everything in the past, including in its name. Nowhere does this attitude come across as starkly as it does in the section on higher education. It comes across fairly clearly on how the higher education ecosystem will be by 2040. By this time — if the policy has its way — the Indian higher education ecosystem will be populated with higher education institutions (HEI). These will comprise Universities and Colleges and the public and private sectors, all of which will be ‗multi-disciplinary‘, with each populated by more than 3,000 students, with at least one ―in or near every district‖. Universities will conduct research and post-graduate and under-graduate teaching, some research-intensive and others teaching-intensive. Colleges will largely teach at the under-graduate level, with a number of them having their medium of instruction in either bilingual or local / Indian languages. The colleges can manifest in clusters around universities as constituent colleges or may be standalone autonomous ones. Ideally, all HEIs will eventually become ―independent self-governing institutions‖ with considerable ―faculty and institutional autonomy. They will have complied with a series of regulatory exercises that are ―light-but-tight‖ and will be operated by a large number of private accreditors, overseen by a new set of regulatory institutions at the national level. Source: Excerpt taken from downtoearth.org.in, written by Nitin Mehta &Gagan Mehta) (Dated 14th August, 2020)
Q.36)  Which of the following statements are not true in relation to the changes envisioned by the NEP 2020?
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Q.37)  The NEP 2020 aims to provide a holistic change to the current education system in India) Which of the following is not related to the aim of NEP 2020?
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Q.38)  Which of the following is proposed as a change in the structure of institutions responsible for affiliation and accreditation under the NEP 2020?
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Q.39)  Which of the following is not a vertical under the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI)?
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Q.40)  What is the proposed percentage of expenditure for education out of GDP under the NEP 2020?
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Q.41)  Who wrote the memoir book “My Brief History”?
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Q.42) What is the Motto of the Commonwealth Games 2018?
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Q.43) The 2024 Summer Olympics will be held in Paris (France) for a third time. How many years before that, did the city host the Summer Olympics for the second time?
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Q.44)  Who won the Men’s Singles title in Australian Open 2018?
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Q.45)  In which election was the Electronic Voting Machines tried out on an experimental basis in India?
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Q.46) Recently a star, Icarus was seen by NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope. What was the approximate time taken by Icarus’s light to reach the Earth?
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Q.47)  Who won the first Gold Medal for India at the Commonwealth Games 2018?
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Q.48)  Who is the first Indian to hold the post of Deputy Director General for Programmes at the World Health Organisation?
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Q.49)  Who is the first female fighter pilot of India?
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Q.50)  The Reserve Bank of India issued the Rs. 100 coin to mark the birth centenary of which Carnatic Music Legend?
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Q.51) Which type of mango from Andhra Pradesh received a Geographical Indication (GI) Tag in 2017?
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Q.52) The International Day of the Girl Child is observed by the UN on
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Q.53)  Where is the temple of Angkor Wat located?
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Q.54)  Which one of the following States lifted the Santosh Trophy Football Title 2018?
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Q.55) IRDA stands for
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Q.56) The first Defence Minister of India was
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Q.57) Who is the legendary figure, who won both a Noble Prize and an Oscar?
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Q.58 ) The discipline that deals with map marking is known as
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Q.59) The prize established, based on a donation from the SverigesRiksbank in memory of Alfred Nobel, is the
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Q.60)  What is the significance of 13th May, 1952 with regard to Indian polity?
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Q.61) Which among the following is the earliest literary work in Tamil Language?
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Q.62)  Who has been appointed in 2018 as the Principle Scientific Advisor to the Government of India?
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Q.63)  Escape velocity of a rocket fired from the Earth towards the Moon is a velocity to get rid of the
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Q.64) From which animal is catgut usually made of ?
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Q.65)  Who wrote the book Der Ursprung der Familie, des Privateigenthums and des stoats/ The Origin of the Family, Private Property and the State?
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LEGAL REASONING
The bench of Dr DY Chandrachud and MR Shah, JJ has refused to transfer to CBI the criminal cases lodged against Republic TV Editor in-Chief Arnab Goswami for alleged defamatory news show telecast on April 21 in connection with the Palghar mob-lynching case. It also quashed all FIRs against Arnab Goswami except one which was filed in Nagpur and which has been transferred to Mumbai via order dated 24.04.2020. Delivering the verdict, Justice Chandrachud said, ― Article 32 of the Constitution constitutes recognition of the constitutional duty entrusted to this Court to protect the fundamental rights of citizens. The exercise of journalistic freedom lies at the core of speech and expression protected by Article 19(1)a). The petitioner is a media journalist. The airing of views on television shows which he hosts is in the exercise of his fundamental right to speech and expression under Article 19(1)a). India‟s freedoms will rest safe as long as journalists can speak truth to power without being chilled by a threat of reprisal…Free citizens cannot exist when the news media is chained to adhere to one position. Yuval Noah Harari has put it succinctly in his recent book titled “21 Lessons for the 21st Century”: “Questions you cannot answer are usually far better for you than answers you cannot question.” [Excerpt from Arnab Ranjan Goswami vs Union Of India on 19 May, 2020]
Q.66) The above passage mentions about the Journalist‘s request to transfer the case to the CBI (Central Bureau of Investigation) for investigation. What could be the appropriate reason for such request?
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Q.67)  The above passage quotes the observation of the Court in relation to freedom of speech and expression as, questions you cannot answer are better than questions you cannot question.Now, based on such observation, chose the most appropriate option which describes the scope of such questions.
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Q.68)  It is an established principle of law that the offence of defamation (harming the reputation) has many exceptions and the imputation of truth is one of those, but the accused must prove that such imputation was true and also for the public good. In the light of this statement which of the following questions/statements are not defamatory?
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Q.69) In the above passage, the Court ordered for the merging of different FIRs into one and the investigation to be conducted at Mumbai. What is the reason behind such order?
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Q.70)  Defamation is punishable:
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On 7th May 2020, a major leakage of Styrene gas was reported from the plastics manufacturing plant 'LG Polymers' located on the outskirts of the Visakhapatnam city. The accident took place when the cooling system of a polymers plant got clogged due to the mismanagement of factory workers and resulted in turning the city into a gas chamber. The gas which leaked was styrene gas, which is a ‗hazardous chemical‘ under Rule 2(e) plus Entry 583 of Schedule I of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical Rules 1989.
Principle 1: Polluter Pays Principle The 'Doctrine of Polluter Pays' is a well-established principle of environmental law, which places an obligation of compensating the damage to the people who ought to reimburse it and also have the capacity to disburse it. The principle explicitly affirms that the person who damages or destructs the environment has the absolute obligation to bear the cost of ameliorating the environment. In Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India case, the Apex Court of India held that the polluter is legally responsible to reimburse the individual sufferers as well as pay for the revitalization of the damaged environment.
 Principle 2: Principle of Strict Liability The principle of Strict Liability was established in the year 1868 in the case of Rylands v. Fletcher, where the Court held that any person who uses his/her land in an 'unnatural manner' and who keeps any 'hazardous substance' on such premises would be held liable under the principle of strict liability for any 'damage' occurred on the 'escape' of such perilous substance. However, the person is liable only when there is non-natural use of land; the principle also restricts liability when the escape is due to an act of strangers, Act of God, for example a natural calamity; due to the person injured or when it happens with the consent of the person injured or with statutory authority.
Principle 3: Principle of Absolute Liability The absolute liability is a stringent form of Strict Liability as it is devoid of any exceptions that were mentioned under the earlier principle. for the first time in the case of M.C) Mehta v. Union of India) This principle implies that whenever an enterprise is engaged in any dangerous or hazardous activity that threatens the people working in the enterprise and those living nearby, it owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community that no harm will be caused) If harm is indeed caused, the enterprise will have to compensate for damages, and can‘t use exceptions provided in the case of strict liability. The enterprise can‘t claim that the harm has not been caused due to negligence (absence of due care) or that it had taken all reasonable precautions.

Q.71) Under which of the following principles, will the company LG Polymers be liable?
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Q.72) As per the Polluter Pays Principle, LG Polymers will be liable to pay:
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Q.73) A company ABC limited operates an industrial chemical plant in the city of Azadnagar. Due to an earthquake on July 22, 2020, the valves of the reactors in the plant get damaged due to which the operators could not properly transport the hazardous gas for chemical vaporisation, resulting in the gas leakage. The gas leakage resulted in the death of 12 workers of the plant and also some people living nearby the Plant. In this situation, in order to decipher the liability of ABC Limited, choose the best option:
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Q.74)  The argument of LG Polymers that, they did not know that the Styrene Gas could leak:
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Q.75) XYZ is a company operating a Pesticide Factory in the city of Rampur. On one day, due to the negligence of Factory staff, there is a leakage of the Pesticide gas as a result of which, many pests and insects which feed on the plantation crops in the nearby farm are killed) There is no harm caused to the people living nearby or the workers of the Pesticide Factory. However, the leakage was so humungous that it reduced the quality of air in the city causing breathing problems for the people living around in the area. In this case,
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Q.76)  Principle : Every person has the right to defend his own person, property or possession against an immediate harm, and to that end, may use reasonable amount of force.                                                                                     Facts : Mr. Caul was passing by Mrs. Mattoo’s house. At that time Mrs. Mattoo’s dog ran out and bite Mr. Caul’s overcoat. Mr. Caul turned around and raised the pistol he was carrying in his pocket of his overcoat. The dog ran away and Mr. Caul shot the dog as it was running away. Mr. Caul knew that the dog had attacked so many other people in the locality of Jammu. Mrs. Mattoo claims that her dog was of a rare breed and it was worth Rs. 5000. She is planning to bring a legal action against Mr. Caul for compensation.
1 point
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Principle : Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property, is said to commit theft. Whoever commits theft, shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years or with fine or with both.                          
Facts: Raju sees a cell phone belonging to Ram laying on the table in Ram’s house. Raju hides the cell phone in Ram’s house in such a place where Ram could not find it ever, due to the fear of immediate search and detection. Raju did this with the intention of taking away the cell phone from the hidden place when Ram forgets about and then sell it away.
Q.77) Is Raju guilty of theft?
1 point
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Q.78)  Principle : A person is guilty of cheating, when he fraudulently induces another person to deliver the latter’s property to him.Facts : A falsely represented to B, a shop-owner that he was an officer from the Commercial Taxes Department. While examining the accounts of the shop, A showed interest in buying a microwave oven on instalment basis. B readily agreed with the hope that he would get a favourable assessment from A regarding his tax liability. A paid the first instalment, took the microwave oven and disappeared from the scene. The police, however, managed to catch hold of A and prosecute him for cheating.
1 point
Clear selection
Q.79)  Principle : Violation of a legal right, with or without damage, gives rise to tort.Facts : “A” establishes a coaching class and charge Rs. 5000 per year as fees. A’s neighbour “B” establishes another coaching class thereby creating a competition. This forces A to reduce his fees to Rs. 3000 per year.Can “A” claim damages from “B” for the loss caused to him?
1 point
Clear selection
Q.80) Principle : An act of God is an operation of natural forces so unexepected that no human foresight or skill could reasonably be expected to anticipate it.Fact : The New Friends Association was celebrating its 10th anniversary and arranged for a concert by a leading musical group. The event was organized in one of the best auditoriums and all the tickets were sold out. On the day of the event, an earthquake destroyed many buildings including the auditorium. People who had purchased the tickets asked for refund from the New Friends Association as show could not take place.
1 point
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Q.81) Principle : Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid act or omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbour. The neighbour for this purpose is any person whom he should have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act.Fact : Krishnan, while driving a car at a high speed in a crowded road, knocked down a cyclist. The cyclist died on the spot with a lot of blood spilling around, Lakshmi, a pregnant woman passing by, suffered from nervous shock, leading to abortion. Lakshmi filed a suit against Krishnan claiming damages.
1 point
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Q.82)  Principle : 1. The Constitution is supreme and all the laws in violation of provisions of the Constitution are void2. A client can exercise his fundamental right to have a lawyer of his choice, provided that particular lawyer is in a position to defend him.Facts : The Constitution of a country A confers upon its citizens the fundamental right to be represented by a lawyer of their own choice in the criminal proceedings. A citizen, Sunil, accused of a crime, engaged a famous criminal lawyer Singhania to defend him. Just one day before the trial was to begin Singhania’s house was raided by income tax authorities and he was detained by them in that connection. Sunil moved a petition in the Court that he was entitled to be represented by Singhania, and therefore, the latter should be released so as to enable him to argue the former’s case.
1 point
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Q.83) Principle : Nothing is an offence done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or what he is doing is wrong or contrary to law.Facts : A takes his son B who is three years old, for a bath to the well. He throws his son inside the well so that he could have a good bath. After 10 minutes, he also jumped in the well to take a good bath and took his son out of the well. He was rescued by villagers. His son was found dead) He is charged for murder. Medical Report declares him to be of unsound mind suffering from serious mental disorder. Decide.
1 point
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Q.84) Principle : Anybody with an intention to cause damage to the public or to any person, cause destruction of any property, he is said to have committed the offence of mischief.Facts : The workers of Premium Private Ltd) Co. were on strike demanding higher bonus. In the course of the strike, a worker by name, Mr. Chandra has thrown stones at the Company and damaged the costly glass. Decide.
1 point
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Q.85) Principle : Mere preparation to commit an offence is not an offence. After making the preparation any act done towards committing the offence with intention to commit it, is an attempt to commit the offence, which is by itself an offence.Facts : Jai wants to kill Veeru. He buys a gun and cartridges for committing the murder. He then sets out searching for Veeru and when he sees Veeru, he loads his gun and takes aim at him and pulls the trigger. The gun did not fire.
1 point
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Q.86) Principle: When a person who has made a promise to another person to do something does not fulfill his promise, another person becomes entitled to receive, from the person who did not fulfill his promise, compensation in the form of money.    Facts: X made a promise to Y to repair his car engine. Y made the payment for repair. After the repair, Y went for a drive in the same car. While driving the car, Y met  with an accident due to bursting of the tyre.
1 point
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Q87)  Principle: Nothing is an offence if it is done in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding greater harm or damage to person or property. Facts: A jumps into a swimming pool to save a boy from drowning. While pulling the boy from water A was hit by C, A left the boy in the water and attacked C. The boy died in the water.
1 point
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Q.88) Principle: Causing of an effect partly by an act and partly by an omission is an offence.               Facts: A did not provide any food to his daughter D, He also confined D in a room. Consequently, D died
1 point
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Q.89)  Principle: A man is guilty of not only for what he actually does but also for the consequences of his doing.Facts: A wanted to kill the animal of B. He saw B standing with his animal and fired a gun shot at the animal. The gun shot killed B.
1 point
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Q.90)  Principle: Civil Suit can be filed where defendant resides or carries on business orwhere cause of action arises.Facts: A carries on business in Gurgaon,B carries on Business in Mumbai. B throughhis agent in Gurgaon purchases goods in Gurgaon and takes delivery through agent in Gurgaon. Where Civil Suit for payment of price can be filed by A?
1 point
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Q.91)  Principle: Death caused by rash or negligent act of a person is an offence.Facts: X was driving his SUV car in a lonely road leading to a forest at 160 km per hour. Suddenly, someone appears from the forest on the road and in the resultant accident, the car hits the commuter causing his death.
1 point
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Q.92)  Principle : 1. Any person may use reasonable force in order to protect his property or person.2. However, the force employed must be proportionate to the apprehended danger.Facts : Ravi was walking on a lonely road)Maniyan came with a knife and said to Ravi, “Your life or your purse”. Ravi pulled out his revolver. On seeing it, Maniyan ran. Ravi shot Maniyan on his legs.
1 point
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Q.93) Principle : One has right to defend his life and property against criminal harm provided it is not possible to approach public authorities and more harm than is necessary has not been caused to avert the danger.Facts : The farm of X on outskirts of the Delhi was attacked by a gang of armed robbers. X without informing the police, at first warned the robbers by firing in the air. As they were fleeing from the farm, he fired and killed one of them. At the trial – I. X can avail the right of private defence as he was defending his life and property.II. X cannot avail the right as he failed to inform the police.III. X cannot avail the right as he caused more harm than was necessary to ward off the danger.IV. X can avail of the right as at first he only fired in the air.
1 point
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Q.94)  Principle : Whoever with the intent to cause, or knows that he is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage to the public or to any person, causes the destruction of any property, or any such change in any property or in the situation thereof or destroys or diminishes its value or utility, or affects it injuriously, commits “mischief”.Facts : Q, knowing that his assets are about to be taken in execution in order to satisfy a debt due from him to Z, destroys those assets, with the intention of thereby preventing Z from obtaining satisfaction of the debt and it caused damages to Z. Decide whether Q has committed any mischief.
1 point
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Q.95)  Principle : Whoever by words, signs or otherwise brings into hatred or contempt or incites disaffection towards the Government established by law in India shall be punished with imprisonment for life.Facts : In a public meeting, Yashpal Reddy, the leader of an opposition party thunders, “This is a government of scoundrels, bootleggers and scamsters. They deserve to be unseated) Teach them a lesson in the coming elections by throwing them out of power”. The Government is contemplating to prosecute Yashpal Reddy.
1 point
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Q.96) Principle : If there is infringement of legal right of a person, he can sue under torts for compensation even if he has not suffered any loss or harm or loss of a single penny.Facts : Mr. B, a bank manager refuses to honour a cheque presented by C, a customer. He knows that C has sufficient funds in his account. Can C sue B under torts and claim compensation?
1 point
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Q.97)  Principle : A parent is not liable for a tort committed by his/her child except when the parent affords the child an opportunity to commit the tort.Facts : A mother takes her 7 years old son with her to market. On reaching the market she shuts the car ignition, pulls the handbrake and puts the car in gear. She leaves her son in the car only. The child starts playing with the car, she release the brakes and pushes the gear lever to neutral. As a result, the car starts moving down the road and runs down a pedestrian.What is the liability of the mother?
1 point
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Q.98)  Principle : A careless person becomes liable for his negligence when he owned a duty of care to others.Facts : As the bus was leaving the platform, Kashish rushed and boarded the bus keeping the door open. Ashish, who was standing at the edge of the platform, was hit by the door of the moving bus and suffered injuries. Ashish claims compensation from Kashish.
1 point
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Q.99) Principle : Under the Constitution, nobody can be convicted twice for the same offence.Facts : The students of a college went on strike against the reservation by the college. A student Ajay in the ensuing confusion assaulted a staff member and injured him grievously. For this offence, he was rusticated from the college. Subsequently, the police arrested him and charge-sheeted him for causing grievous hurt. Ajay pleads that he is being convicted for the same offence twice.
1 point
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Principles : An “insider” in relation to any company is any person who is an employee, director, or holder of more than 10% or more of that company’s shares, or who is in possession of, or has access to, unpublished information that may affect the price of that company’s shares on the market (such information is called “unpublished price sensitive information”).
No insider in possession of unpublished price sensitive information shall communicate, provide, or allow access to any unpublished price sensitive information, relating to the company in relation to which they are an insider, or its shares, to any person, including other insiders, except where such communication is in furtherance of legitimate purposes, performance of duties or discharge of legal obligations. Any insider that does so shall be guilty of the offence of insider trading.
No insider may buy and then sell, or sell and then buy the shares of any company in relation to which they are an insider, within a six-month period. Any insider that does this shall be guilty of committing a contra trade.
 Facts : Sam works as a secretary in Super Cement Company Limited (the “Company”). He has been in the Company’s employ for over seven years, but only as a secretary, and does not usually have access to any sensitive information at the Company’s offices. Sam’s wife, Suhani, is a share trader, and makes her living buying and selling shares on the stock market. One day in February, Sam returned home and left his bag on the table. Suhani noticed a piece of paper that had fallen out of the bag, and while picking it up, she saw that the paper described certain important plans that the company was about to put into motion to expand its business dramatically by taking huge loans. Sam saw the paper in Suhani’s hands, and asked her to put it away; his boss, a director of the Company, had asked Sam to proof-read the paper and give it back to him the next day. He had also told Sam that the paper contained secret information that should not be revealed to anyone.
The next day, Suhani sold all the shares she owned in the Company. Sam’s boss owned 15% of the Company’s shares, and he sold all his shares that same day.
In November of the same year, the Company’s shares were trading at a price much lower than they were in February. Suhani and Sam’s boss bought a number of the Company’s shares in November, at the lower price.


Q.100)  Has Sam committed the offence of insider trading?
1 point
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Q.101) Who, if any, amongst the following has committed a contra trade?
1 point
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Q.102) Assume that Sam’s boss owned only 8% of the Company’s shares in February. Would he then be guilty of insider trading?
1 point
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Q.103)  Sam is charged with the offence of insider trading by the authorities. Which of the following, if true, would be a valid defence for Sam?
1 point
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Compassionate appointment is an exception to the general rule of appointment which is a way
of providing employment to the family of the deceased employee on compassionate grounds.
The objective is only to provide solace and succour to the family in difficult times and, thus,
its relevancy is at that stage of time when the employee passes away. The mere death of an
employee in harness does not entitle his family to such source of livelihood. The authority
concerned has to examine the financial condition of the family of the deceased, and it is only
if it is satisfied that, but for the provision of employment, the family will not be able to meet
the crisis that the job is offered to the eligible member of the family. It was further asseverated
in the said judgment that compassionate employment cannot be granted after a lapse of
reasonable period as the consideration of such employment is not a vested right which can be
exercised at any time in the future. It was further held that the object of compassionate
appointment is to enable the family to get over the financial crisis that it faces at the time of
the death of sole breadwinner. Thus, compassionate appointment cannot be claimed or offered
after a significant lapse of time and after the crisis is over.

Q.104) Which of the following correctly states the intent behind the application of compassionate appointment?
1 point
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Q.105)  Which of the following is not correct about the rule of compassionate appointment?
1 point
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LOGICAL REASONING
An ice-cream maker is experimenting with six chemical essences, U, V, W, X, Y and Z for developing a new flavour called “SEETER & HEALTHIER”. The details of these chemical essences are as follows:
A) U is sweeter than V and healthier than Z
B) V is sweeter than Y and less healthier than Z
C) W is less sweeter than X and less healthy than U
D) X is less sweet and healthier than Y
E) Y is less sweet and healthier than U
F) Z is sweeter than U and less healthy than W.

Q.106)  Which is the sweetest essence?
1 point
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Q.107) Which of the following essence is/are both sweeter and healthier than V?
1 point
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Q.108)  Which of the following essence is/are sweeter than Y and healthier than W?
1 point
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Q.109)  Which is the least healthy essence?
1 point
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Seven faculty members at a management institute frequent a lounge for strong coffee and stimulating conversation. On being asked about their visit to the lounge last Friday we got the following responses.
JC – I came in first, and the next two persons to enter were SS and SM. When I left the lounge, JP and VR were present in the lounge. DG left with me.
JP – When I entered the lounge with VR, JC was sitting there. There were someone else, but I cannot remember who it was.
SM – I went to the lounge for a short while, and met JC, SS and DG in the lounge on that day.
SS – I left immediately after SM left.
DG – I met JC, SS, SM, JP and VR during my first visit to the lounge. I went back to my office with JC) When I went to the lounge the second time, JP and VR were there.
PK – I had some urgent work, so I did not sit in the lounge that day, but just collected my coffee and left. JP and DG were the only people in the lounge while I was there.
VR – No comments.

Q.110)  Based on the responses, which of the two JP or DG, entered the lounge first?
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Q.111) Who was sitting with JC when JP entered the lounge?
1 point
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Q.112) How many of these seven members did VR meet on Friday in the lounge?
1 point
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Q.113)  Who were the last two faculty members to leave the lounge?
1 point
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Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, America, Australia and Europe) attended a United Nations Conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
a) The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly the half of the number of experts in each of the other three fields.
b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise every continent including Africa, sent atleast one expert in each categories.
c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
d) If there had been one less Australian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
e) Mike and Alfonzo are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australia.
Q.114)  If Ramos is the lone American expert in population studies, which of the following is not true about the numbers of experts in the conference from the four continents?
1 point
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Q.115)  Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first key note speaker in the conference. What can be inferred the number about the number of American experts in refugee relocation in the conference, excluding Alex?   (I) At least one (II) At most two
1 point
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Q.116)  Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?
1 point
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Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a Company XYZ Ltd) Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals- 10am, 11am, 12 noon, 1pm and 2pm, and selling the whole lot at the closing of the day. Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetan’s total investment amount is divided equally among his purchasers. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sales values at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The “return” for each investor is defined as the ration of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.
Q.117)  On a day of fluctuating market price, the share price of XYZ limited ends with a gain, i.e., it is higher at the close of the day compared to the opening value. Which trader got more return on that day?
1 point
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Q.118) Which one of the following statements is always true?
1 point
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Q.119) On a “boom” day the share price of XYZ Ltd) keeps rising throughout the day and peaks at the close of the day. Which trader got the minimum return on that day?
1 point
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An inexperienced yoga teacher, posing as an expert on yogic exercises (Asanas) prescribed a schedule of exercises for pupil. Choosing from exercises Anubittasana, Bhujangasana, Chakrasana, Dhanurasana, Sukhasana, Tadasana, Ushtrasana and Vyagrasana, the pupil must perform a routine of exactly five different asanas each day. In any day’s routine, except the first day, exactly three of the exercises must be the ones that were included in the routine of the previous day, and any permissible routine must also satisfy the following conditions :
(a) If Anubittasana is in routine, Ushrasana cannot be done in that routine.
(b) If Bhujangasana is in routine, Sukhasana must be one of the exercises done after Bhujangasana in that routine.
(c) If Chakrasana is in routine, Ushtrasana must be one of the exercises done after Chakrasana in that routine.
(d) The fifth exercise of any routine must be either Dhanurasana or Tadasana.

Q120) If one day’s routine is Anubittasana, Bhujangasana, Vyagrasana, Sukhasana and Tadasana, each of the following could be the next day’s routine, except:
1 point
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Q.121) Which of the following is true for any permissible routine?
1 point
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Q.122) If the pupil chooses Chakrasana and Vyagrasana for the first day’s routine, which of the following could be the other three exercises chosen?
1 point
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Q.123)  If Chakrasana is the third exercise in a routine, which of the following cannot be the second exercise?
1 point
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There are six teachers, viz., A, B, C, D, E and F in a school. Each of the teachers teaches two subjects, one compulsory and one optional subject. D’s optional subject was history while three of the other teachers have it as their compulsory subject. E and F have Physics as one of their subjects. F’s compulsory subject is Mathematics which is an optional subject for both C and E. History and English are A’s subjects but in terms of compulsory and optional subjects, they are just the reverse of D’s subjects. Chemistry is an optional subject for only one of them. The only female teacher in the school has English as a compulsory subject.
Q.124) Which is C’s compulsory subject?
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Q.125) Who is the female member in the group?
1 point
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Q.126) Which of the following has the same compulsory and optional subjects as F?
1 point
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Q.127)  Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same two subject combinations as F?
1 point
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Q.128)  Which of the following groups has History as their compulsory subject?
1 point
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The CBI was keeping an eye on four suspected lady criminals – Meenakshi, Razia, Sharmila and Theresa while monitoring their movements in and out of a multi-storey building they discovered a pattern and made the following observations –
(a) No suspect ever entered or left the building together with another suspect
(b) Each of the suspects entered and later left the building, only once everyday
(c) No suspect ever left the building in the same order (first, second, third and fourth) in which she entered the building
(d) Both while entering the building and leaving, Razia was always earlier than Sharmila

Q.129) On a certain day, the two suspects who entered the building first were also the first to leave. Then the last two suspects to enter the building could be:
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Q.130)  On a certain day, Meenakshi and Theresa were the second and the third suspect entered the building and Meenakshi also left the building before Theresa did) Then the order in which the suspects left the building, from the first to the fourth, must be:
1 point
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Q.131)  On a day when Razia was the second suspect to enter the building and Theresa was the third, which of the following must be true?
1 point
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Help Distress (HD) is an N.G.O. involved in providing assistance to people suffering from natural disasters. Currently it has 37 volunteers. They are involved in three projects: Tsunami Relief (TR) in Tamil Nadu, Flood Relief (FR) in Maharashtra, and Earthquake Relief (ER) in Gujarat. Each volunteer working with Help Distress has to be involved in at least one relief work project.
A) A maximum number of volunteers are involved in FR project. Among them, the number of volunteers involved in FR project alone is equal to the volunteers having additional involvement in the ER project.
B) The number of volunteers involved in ER project alone is double the number of volunteers involved in all the three projects.
C) Seventeen volunteers are involved in the TR project.
D) The number of volunteers involved in TR project alone is one less than the number of volunteers involved in ER project alone.
E) Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also involved in atleast one more project.

Q.132) Based on the information given above, the minimum number of volunteers involved in both FR and TR projects, but not in the ER project is
1 point
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Q.133) Which one of the following additional information would enable to find the exact number of volunteers involved in various projects?
1 point
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Q.134)  Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna cannot follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
1 point
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Quantitative Techniques
Directions: The pie-chart drawn below shows the expenses of a family on various items and its savings during its year 2021. Study the graph and answer the questions given below:
Percentage of money spent on various items and savings by a family during 2021
Q.135) Maximum expenditure of the family was on:
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Q136) The total savings of the family for the year were equal to the expenditure on:
1 point
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Q.137) What percentage of income was spent on transport and other items together?
1 point
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Q.138)  If the total income of a family was Rs. 100000, how much money was spent on the education of children?
1 point
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Q.139) If the total income for the year was Rs. 100000, the difference of the expenses (in rupees) between housing and transport was:
1 point
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Directions : Refer to the following Table. Read the Table and answer the questions.     Food grain production in a country in 1999 (in Lakh Tonnes)
Q.140)  Which State had the highest grain production?
1 point
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Q.141) What was the proportion of rice production to wheat production in the country?
1 point
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Q.142) Jowar was the most important food grain in the State/States:
1 point
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Q143) State P alone accounted for approximately what percentage of wheat production in the country?
1 point
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Q.144)  If the average per hectare yield of rice in the country was thirty tonnes, then the area (approximately) under rice cultivation during the year was (in Lakh hectares)
1 point
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Directions : Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions below it.
Q.145)  Which of the following State(s) contribute(s) less than 10% in the total rose production?
1 point
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Q.146) By what percentage rose production of other States is more than that of the Maharashtra?
1 point
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Q.147) What is the approximate average production of roses (in thousands) across all the States?
1 point
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Q.148) Approximately what percentage of the total rose production is shared by the other States?
1 point
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Q.149) If total percentage contribution of the States having production of roses below 20000 is considered, which of the following statements is true?
1 point
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Q.150)  In a class of 90 students 60% are girls and remaining are boys. Average marks of boy are 63 and that of girls are 70. What are the average marks of the whole class?
1 point
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NAME OF THE STUDENT *
GENDER *
DATE OF BIRTH & AGE *
STUDENT CONTACT NUMBER *
Aadhar Card Number
1 point
WHATS APP NUMBER *
NAME OF THE COLLEGE/INSTITUTION *
PERCENTAGE/ CGPA *
FATHER'S NAME *
PARENT CONTACT NUMBER *
NAME OF THE COLLEGE
FULL POSTAL ADDRESS
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