PG TEST PAPER 007

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PG TEST PAPER 007

*Dated: 06-09-2020
*No. of Question: 50
*Time: 60 min
Sub: Surgery, Microbiology, Gynecology, Pediatric.

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Q1). All of the following are the side effect of PPIs except- *

1 point

Option 3. Iron deficiency

Option 2. Folic acid deficiency

Option 1. Vitamin B12 deficiency

Option 4. Calcium deficiency

Option 5. Magnesium deficiency

Q2). Heart lung machines and respirators are sterilized with- *

1 point

Option 1. Ethylene oxide

Option 3. Hot air oven

Option 4. Ionizing radiation

Option 2. 2% Gluteraldehyde

Q3). Which of the following statement is incorrect about chronic villous sampling- *

1 point

Option 1. detects neural tube defects

Option 2. detects inborn errors of metabolism

Option 3. detects hemoglobinopathies

Option 4. diagnosis of Down syndrome

Q4). Studiford's criteria is used for-

1 point

Option 1. Cervical pregnancy

Option 2. Ovarian pregnancy

Option 3. Tubal pregnancy

Option 4. Primary abdominal pregnancy

Clear selection

Q5). Name of the given instrument- *

1 point

Option 1. Ivc filter

Option 2. Chemoport

Option 3. Pacemaker

Option 4. Gamma camera

Q6). Normal physiological changes in respiratory system in pregnancy are all except- *

1 point

Option 1. Decreased residual volume

Option 2. Increase respiratory rate

Option 3. Increased tidal volume

Option 4. Decreased total lung volume

Q7). Single broad based budding yeast is a feature of- *

1 point

Option 1. Histoplasma

Option 2. Coccidiodes

Option 3. Cryptococcus

Option 4. Blastomyces

Q8). True about pneumocystic jirovecci are all except- *

1 point

Option 1. Increase risk of infection if CD4 T-cells <200/ul

Option 2. Prophylaxis should be started if CD4 T-cells <200/ul

Option 3. Cultured in subouraud's glucose agar

Option 4. Cotrimoxazole is the drug of choice

Q9). Urinary lipoarabinomannan (LAM) assay is used for the diagnosis of- *

1 point

Option 1. M. tuberculosis

Option 2. M. lepra

Option 3. Mycoplasma

Option 4. Listeria monocytogene

Q10). True about Pelger-Huet anomaly- *

1 point

Option 1. Mutation in lamin A receptor

Option 2. Associated with Thalessemia

Option 3. Associated with Myelodysplastic syndrome

Option 4. Neutrophil is trilobed shaped in this entity

Q11). For neonatal resuscitation which of the following signs is not assessed- *

1 point

Option 1. Spontaneous breathing

Option 2. Hypoglycemia

Option 3. Flaccidity

Option 4. Cyanosis

Q12). Which of the following is not the complication in infant of a diabetic mother - *

1 point

Option 1. Hypoglycemia

Option 2. Hypocalcemia

Option 3. Hyperkalemia

Option 4. Hypomagnesemia

Q13). According to the Rotterdam consensus USG criteria for the diagnosis of PCOD include all except *

1 point

Option 1. Follicles number >12 in any ovary

Option 2. Follicles number >20 in any ovary

Option 3. Follicle size should be 2-9mm

Option 4. Ovarian volume >10cm3

Q14). Nugent score is used for diagnosis of- *

1 point

Option 1. Non-infectious vaginosis

Option 2. Viral vaginosis

Option 3. Bacterial vaginosis

Option 4. Fungal vaginosis

Q15). Spiegelberg's criteria is used for- *

1 point

Option 1. Cervical pregnancy

Option 2. Tubal pregnancy

Option 3. Ovarian pregnancy

Option 4. Abdominal pregnancy

Q16). False regarding cystic fibrosis is- *

1 point

Option 1. Primarily affects the lung and GIT

Option 2. Most common infecting organism is pseudomonas aeruginosa

Option 3. High sweat chloride >60mEq/L confirm the diagnosis

Option 4. Normal sweat chloride exclude the diagnosis

Q17). Which of the following bacteria is not used in the Nugent's criteria- *

1 point

Option 1. Lactobacillus

Option 2. Gardnerella

Option 3. Mobiluncus

Option 4. Trichomonas

Q18). First sign of Magnesium toxicity in pregnancy is - *

1 point

Option 1. Loss of deep tendon reflux

Option 2. Decrease respiratory rate

Option 3. Decrease urinary output

Option 4. Decrease heart rate

Q19). Absence of cockscrew gland is characteristic of- *

1 point

Option 1. PCOS

Option 2. Adenomyosis

Option 3. Metropathia hemorrhagica

Option 4. Uterine myoma

Q20). The most common type of gallstone diagnosed in India is- *

1 point

Option 1. Cholesterol stone

Option 2. Pigment stone

Option 3. Mixed stone

Option 4. Uric acid stone

Q21). A child of 3 year cannot do- *

1 point

Option 1. Draw a circle

Option 2. Knows his gender

Option 3. Can dress and undress

Option 4. Draw a triangle

Q22). True about Ashermann syndrome is- *

1 point

Option 1. Also known as uterine synechiae

Option 2. May occur due to infection from schistosomiasis

Option 3. Level of FSH, LH and Prolactin is normal

Option 4. MRI pelvis is the gold standard test for diagnosis

Q23). Which of the following is not the sign of pneumoperitoneum- *

1 point

Option 1. Cupola sign

Option 2. Fox sign

Option 3. Rigler's sign

Option 4. Silver's sign

Q24). Maximum accepted contamination rate for a blood culture is- *

1 point

Option 1. 1%

Option 2. 3%

Option 3. 6%

Option 4. 12%

Q25). All of the following are the cause of termination of pregnancy in heart diseases except *

1 point

Option 1. Severe mitral stenosis

Option 2. Severe aortic stenosis

Option 3. Marfan's syndrome with aorta involvement >45mm

Option 4. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

Q26). All of the following are the complication of hemolytic disease of newborn except- *

1 point

Option 1. Thrombocytopenia

Option 2. Hypoglycemia

Option 3. Kernicterus

Option 4. Inspissated bile

Option 5. Cerebral palsy

Q27). Murphy's triad associated with- *

1 point

Option 1. Acute Cholecystitis

Option 2. Biliary colic

Option 3. Acute pyelonephritis

Option 4. Acute Appendicitis

Q28). False about Melioidosis *

1 point

Option 1. Caused by Burkholderia mallei

Option 2. Also known as Whitmore disease

Option 3. Can present with fever and rash

Option 4. Co-trimoxazole is the drug of choice

Q29). Mental retardation is not seen in *

1 point

Option 1. Autism

Option 2. Rett's syndrome

Option 3. Asperger syndrome

Option 4. Pendred syndrome

Q30). Non-treponemal test include- *

1 point

Option 1. VDRL

Option 2. TPI

Option 3. TPHA

Option 4. FTA-ABS

Q31). Which of the following is the most common cause of maternal heart disease causing mortality in pregnancy- *

1 point

Option 1. Fallot's tetrology

Option 2. Eisenmenrger's syndrome

Option 3. Mitral stenosis

Option 4. Coarctation of aorta

Q32). Fasle regarding Umbilical hernia- *

1 point

Option 1. Mostly acquired

Option 2. More common in females

Option 3. Occure due to increased intraabdominal pressure

Option 4. If symptomatic, needs surgical treatment

Q33). Sweating while eating (gustatory sweating) & facial flushing after parotidectomy due to which nerve injury- *

1 point

Option 1. Facial nerve

Option 2. Auriculotemporal nerve

Option 3. Greater auricular nerve

Option 4. Occipital nerve

Q34). Swansea criteria in pregnancy is used for- *

1 point

Option 1. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

Option 2. HELLP syndrome

Option 3. Preeclampsia

Option 4. Antiphospholipid syndrome

Q35). Which flap based procedure is used for pilonidal sinus surgery- *

1 point

Option 1. Free flap

Option 2. Circular flap

Option 3. Rhomboid flap

Option 4. Rotational flap

Q36). Which of the following is the most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula- *

1 point

Option 1. Type A

Option 2. Type B

Option 3. Type C

Option 4. Type D

Q37). Which of the following is not the risk factor of chrioamnionitis- *

1 point

Option 1. Maternal age >30

Option 2. First pregnancy

Option 3. Prolong labour

Option 4. Premature birth

Q38). Anti-LKM2 antibody is associated with- *

1 point

Option 1. Type 1 autoimmune disease

Option 2. Type 2 autoimmune disease

Option 3. Chronic hepatitis D

Option 4. Drug induced hepatitis

Q39). PANDA infection is associated with- *

1 point

Option 1. Staphylococcus

Option 2. Streptococcus

Option 3. Varicella

Option 4. Influenza

Q40). Major supply of uterine myoma is from *

1 point

Option 1. Uterine artery

Option 2. Round ligament artery

Option 3. Ovarian artery

Option 4. Lumbar artery

Q41). Achild at the age of 3 year is presenting with repetitive sterotyped movement, mental retardation and decreased head circumference. The most probable diagnosis is- *

1 point

Option 1. Rett syndrome

Option 2. Asperger syndrome

Option 3. Congenital syphilis

Option 4. Autism

Q42). Which of the following rule is used to calculate proper dosage of medicine in children- *

1 point

Option 1. Wallace rule

Option 2. Palm rule

Option 3. Toddler rule

Option 4. Clark rule

Q43). Most common infection causing non-immune hydrops fetalis- *

1 point

Option 1. EBV

Option 2. CMV

Option 3. Herpes simplex virus

Option 4. Parvovirus B19

Q44). A 21 year old female with 42 days of amenorrhea with spotting. Next investigation should be- *

1 point

Option 1. Transvaginal USG

Option 2. Urinary pregnancy test

Option 3. Progesterone challange test

Option 4. MRI pelvis

Q45). Which of the following drug is not Category X drug use by FDI in pregnancy- *

1 point

Option 1. Cyclophosphamide

Option 2. Estrogen

Option 3. Thalidomide

Option 4. Isotretinoin

Q46). Which of the following score is not used in acute pancreatitis - *

1 point

Option 1. Alvarado score

Option 2. BISAP score

Option 3. Ranson score

Option 4. APACHE score

Q47). Paroxysms of laughter are seen in- *

1 point

Option 1. Apert syndrome

Option 2. Pendered syndrome

Option 3. Angelman syndrome

Option 4. Pierre robbin syndrome

Q48). All are used to diagnose chorioamnionitis except- *

1 point

Option 1. Maternal fever >100.4F

Option 2. Maternal tachycardia >100/min

Option 3. Fetal tachycardia >160/min

Option 4. Diagnostic gold standard is gram staining of amniotic fluid

Q49). Sistrunk's operation is used for the treatment of- *

1 point

Option 1. Branchial cyst

Option 2. Branchial fistula

Option 3. Thyroglossal cyst

Option 4. Parotid cyst

Q50). Treatment of choice in a patient with a staghorn calculus with mild hydronephrosis- *

1 point

Option 1. ESWL

Option 2. PCNL

Option 3. RIRS

Option 4. Open surgery

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