AIBE MOCK TEST (14A) 26-50

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1. Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with

1 point

A) Interim measures by the court

B) Discretionary powers of the court

C) Both A&B

D) None of the above

Clear selection

2. For the first time in India Income Tax was introduced by Sir James Wilson in the year:

1 point

A) 1886

B) 1868

C) 1860

D) None of the Above

Clear selection

3. In which case Justice J.C. Shah of S.C. observed "Since by the exercise of the power a serious invasion is made upon the rights, privacy and freedom of the tax payer, the power must be exercised strictly in accordance with law and only for the purpose for which law authorises it to be excercised"

1 point

A) Director of Inspection Vs Pooranmal

B) ITO Vs Seth Brothers

C) P.R. Metrani Vs CIT

D) None of the above

CANCELLED

Clear selection

4. Which of the following statements are true? i. Minor's contract can be ratified on attaining majority. ii. Minor's contact be ratified on attaining majority iii. Minor's contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties to the contract. iv. Minor is not liable under minor's contract

1 point

A) (i) and (iii)

B) (ii) and (iv)

C) (i) and (ii)

D) (ii) and (iii)

CANCELLED

Clear selection

5. Which one of the following sections of Cr PC deals with irregularities which vitiate proceeding?

1 point

A) Section 460

B) Section 461

C) Section 462

D) Section 468

Clear selection

6. Which of the following is not an essential element of a decree:

1 point

A) Conclusive determination of the rights of the parties.

B) Formal expression of adjudication :

C) An adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order.

D) The adjudication must have been given in a suit before the court.

Clear selection

7. Which of the following is not a duty of an Advocate to Court:

1 point

A) To not commit breach of section 126 of Evidence Act.

B) To not to appear on behalf of any organisation of whose Executive Committee, he is a member.

C) To not appear before a Court, Tribunal or Authority in which his near relation is a member.

D) To conduct himself with dignity and self-respect during presentation of a case before a Court and otherwise acting before a Court.

Clear selection

8. Which of the following rules of Chapter II of Part VI of the Bar Council Rules deal with the duty of an Advocate in respect of any moneys received by him from Client:

1 point

A) Rule 25

B) Rule 33

C) Rule 24.

D) None of the Above

Clear selection

9. Under which of the following sections of CrPC provisions relating to police report is given?

1 point

A) Section 173 (2) (i)

B) Section 177

C) Section 174 (2) (i)

D) Section 175

Clear selection

10. Which one of the following provisions of CrPC deals with anticipatory bail?

1 point

A) Section 437

B) Section 438

C) Section 439

D) None of the above

Clear selection

11. The provision relating to cancellation of bond and bail bond is given under

1 point

A) Section 446-A

B) Section 446

C) Section 447

D) Section 450

Clear selection

12. The provisions relating to dowry is given under:

1 point

A) Section 304-B of the I.P.C

B) Section 304-A of the I.P.C

C. Section 304 of the I.P.C

D) Section 305-B of the I.P.C

Clear selection

13. Which of the following section is designed to curb infanticide:

1 point

A) Section 317 of the I.P.C

B) Section 313 of the I.P.C

C. Section 318 of the I.P.C

D) Section 315 of the I.P.C

Clear selection

14. Which order has been specially enacted to protect the interest of Minors and Unsound Mind:

1 point

A) Order 31

B) Order 32

C. Order 33

D) Order 34

Clear selection

15. Which order of the CPC lays down general rules governing pleadings in a court

1 point

A) Order 6

B) Order 7

C. Order 8

D) Order 9

Clear selection

16. Second appeal under section 100 is applicable:

1 point

A) Substantial question of law as formulated by the High Court.

B) Substantial question of law as not formulated by the High Court.

C. An appellate decree passed Ex Parte.

D) All of the above

CANCELLED

Clear selection

17. Which of the following is an infringement of a Registered Trade mark:

1 point

A) Use of a mark identical to the Trade mark in 'relation to goods without authorisation.

B) Advertising of that Trade mark such that the advertisement is against the reputation of the Trade Mark.

C) Use of that Trade mark as a business name without authorisation

D) All of the above

Clear selection

18. A person undergoing life imprisonment, if attempts to commit murder and hurt is caused thereby, he may be punished with:

1 point

A) Life Imprisonment

B) Death

C. Imprisonment

D) All of the above

Clear selection

19. Residuary Powers in India may be exercised by

1 point

A) Parliament

B) State Legislatures

C. President Death

D) Both A & B

Clear selection

20. The Punishments to which offenders are liable under the provision of I.P.C are: -

1 point

A) Death and imprisonment for life

B) Rigorous imprisonment and simple imprisonment

C. Forfeiture of property and fine

D) All of the above

Clear selection

21. M' Naghten Rules form the basis of the law of:

1 point

A) Infancy

B) Insanity

C. Ignorance of fact

D) Mistake

Clear selection

22. The authentication to be affected by the use of asymmetric crypto system and hash function is known as:

1 point

A) Public key

B) Private key

C. Digital Signature

D) Electronic Governance

Clear selection

23. Punishment for Cyber Terrorism under Section 66F shall be punishable:

1 point

A) With Imprisonment which may extend to three year or with fine not exceeding two lakh rupees or with both.

B) With imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.

C. With imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life.

D) With imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years and shall also be liable to fine.

Clear selection

24. Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 define "Industry" means any i. Business trade, undertaking, ii. Manufacture or calling of Employers iii. Included any calling, service, employment, handicraft. iv. Industrial occupation of workmen

1 point

A) (i) and (ii)

B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

C. (iii)and (iv)

D) All of the above

Clear selection

25. Which of the following provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 incorporates the fault theory of divorce?

1 point

A) Section 13(1)

B) Section 11

C. Section 13B

D) Section 13(2)

Both A and D

Clear selection

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